Originally posted by Fleetwood Mac
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Well, if there is warmth "under" X, it's not the same as X being warm is it? Whereas if there is warmth "in" X, it IS the same as X being warm, isn't it?. Isn't that obvious?
Let me ask you and George, and everyone else, to consider the following hypothetical scenario:
You are a medical examiner coming to a crime scene to find a naked, unmutilated, dead body, lying on its back.
You want to check the temperature but you don't have a thermometer so you feel the face, torso and legs - all cold.
Slipping your hands underneath the corpse, you discover the upper back and the buttocks to be cold but you feel warmth at the area of the lower back, underneath the part of the body where you know the intestines are situated.
You are aware that the intestines retain heat after death.
When you come to explain the situation to the coroner you could say "The body was cold except for some warmth under the lower back". But that doesn't really explain to the coroner why you believe you found heat there.
So tell me: would it be reasonable to explain your findings as: "The body was cold except for some warmth under the intestines"?
I'm not saying that this is unquestionably what Dr Phillips was attempting to convey to Baxter, only that it's one, not entirely unreasonable, interpretation of his words. Are you prepared to agree?
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