Originally posted by rjpalmer
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And that commonsense difference--fully appreciated by James Monro back in 1889, despite what you and Christer seem to believe--is precisely why Monro rejected the Pinchin Street case as the work of the 'Ripper.'
To quote the man himself:
"There is no mutilation as in previous cases, altho' there is dismemberment. There is no evisceration. There is no removal of any portion of the organs of generation or intestines. The murder was indubitably committed neither in the street, nor in the victim's house, but probably in the lodging of the murderer. Here where there was as in the previous cases of murder in a house, plenty of time at the disposal of the murderer, there is no sign of frenzied mutilation of the body, but of deliberate & skillful dismemberment with a view to removal."
"With a few to removal."
Helina Hakkanen-Nyholm couldn't have written it better herself.
In other words, despite the murderer having all the time in the world, he made no attack on the abdomen or the genitals, etc., even though this was his apparent focus in Mitre Square, in Hanbury Street, in Miller's Court, etc..
Here the murderer's motive appears to be entirely different.
As for the cut down the midsection Monro writes:
"The inner coating of the bowel is hardly touched, and the termination of the cut towards the vagina looks almost as if the knife had slipped, and as if this portion of the wound had been accidental. The whole of the wound looks as if the murderer had intended to make a cut in prepatory to removing the intestines in the process of dismemberment, & had then changed his mind."
Does anyone truly think the Ripper, having hours at his disposal, would have made such a vague attempt at the victim's vagina that it could be interpreted as an accidental 'slip'? Look again at the Kelly photo and claim that this is a rational conclusion.
As I see it, Dr. Helina Hakkanen-Nyholm's observations dovetail perfectly with the observations made by James Monro back in 1889, and do not support, as is being implied or claimed, the idea that the injuries to the Pinchin Street victim demonstrate the same underlying 'sexual' motive as in the 'Ripper' cases.
Christer is forced to ignore this and instead veers his analysis over to an entirely different case, such as that of Elizabeth Jackson, though I hasten to add that that case adds its own difficulties to Christer's theories.
Or if not entirely ignore it, come up with the strange idea of a 'hybrid' to avoid facing the reality that no sexual mutilations had been attempted.
One other point. Christer further writes of the Pinchin Street case:
The previous statement by Monro shows that that is not the case, and Christer is misusing the word 'emulate.'
What Monro actually wrote, as an alternative theory to his previous observations, is:
"It may also be that the gash was inflicted to give rise to the impression that this case was the work of the Whitechapel Murderer..."
Monro is clearly not saying that the Pinchin Street murderer was "emulating" the Ripper (which means to meet or exceed his behaviors) but to counterfeit the Ripper, with the strictly analytical motive of throwing the police off the scent.
Personally, I suspect that Monro just threw this out as a 'spitball' possibility---he had already given his own primary reasoning at greater length.
All in all, I think it is really poor form, investigatively speaking, to take two very different case (the Kelly murder and the Pinchin Street case) and then to try to link them to the same perpetrator by interjecting a third case (say, Elizabeth Jackson).
From all that I have read, murder squad detectives consciously avoid this sort of thing because it only leads to wrong interpretations and false assumptions and, at its worse, pinning the crime on the wrong person.
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