So we have a bayonett wound to her sternum and wounds elsewhere done with a pen knife.
So what is more likely? Either it was one person who switched instruments or two individuals with two different knives?
I believe the latter is what a jury would aim for. That an 'accomplice' is being omitted if we just go with it being one murderer's hand.
However I would like to try and push this a little more leftfield, that there was a second attacker, but it was not an 'accomplice', but an opportunity attack done post-mortem after the original murderer left the scene.
Consider a "Peeping Tom" active in a place where the density of crime per square meter is unreal, i.e - Whitechapel, London, late 1880s. Criminals who joined in on a mugging or do a post-mugging of someone knocked out cold by another person where probability innumerable. Theft and blitz attacks are part of JtRs MO.
If JtR in his early days had the opportunity to rip up a body he had not killed, would he still do it? I think yes.
If the opportunity to have a go at a near dead body or that of a semi-unconscious drunk prostitute arose before Jack I think he would attempt his MO.
This may give some allowence for Schwartz seeing a completely different person man-handling Stride to the one that killed her. However I doubt this as Stride wasn't mutilated which means the killer had an opportunity but then had to flee from someone else's murder, which doesn't make any sense.
However if other whitechapel murders have 'gang' related elements, I don't think this excludes JtR at all. He may have gone off on his own when the gang wasn't actively doing anything to satisfy his fantasy.
Anyway, 2 knives, 2 people, 1 Jack?
Any comments
So what is more likely? Either it was one person who switched instruments or two individuals with two different knives?
I believe the latter is what a jury would aim for. That an 'accomplice' is being omitted if we just go with it being one murderer's hand.
However I would like to try and push this a little more leftfield, that there was a second attacker, but it was not an 'accomplice', but an opportunity attack done post-mortem after the original murderer left the scene.
Consider a "Peeping Tom" active in a place where the density of crime per square meter is unreal, i.e - Whitechapel, London, late 1880s. Criminals who joined in on a mugging or do a post-mugging of someone knocked out cold by another person where probability innumerable. Theft and blitz attacks are part of JtRs MO.
If JtR in his early days had the opportunity to rip up a body he had not killed, would he still do it? I think yes.
If the opportunity to have a go at a near dead body or that of a semi-unconscious drunk prostitute arose before Jack I think he would attempt his MO.
This may give some allowence for Schwartz seeing a completely different person man-handling Stride to the one that killed her. However I doubt this as Stride wasn't mutilated which means the killer had an opportunity but then had to flee from someone else's murder, which doesn't make any sense.
However if other whitechapel murders have 'gang' related elements, I don't think this excludes JtR at all. He may have gone off on his own when the gang wasn't actively doing anything to satisfy his fantasy.
Anyway, 2 knives, 2 people, 1 Jack?
Any comments
Comment