Originally posted by Harry D
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perhaps. He may have been scared off before as me and EL just discussed, or perhaps he was working himself up to organ removal. Do you not see reasonable explanation of escalation from millwood to Tabram to Nichols to chapman etc? I do.
And is there really that much of a difference between stabbing and ripping? IMHO no there is not. Especially considering that the first ripping he did was a throat cut with Nichols, suggesting that after the clumsy (but fatal) attack on martha, he improved upon his MO of dispatching/incapacitating his victim and then continued with the escalation with the ripping that would later involve organ removal. its a reasonable narrative to me anyway.
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