Right, I get that 'Jack' could have started out with disjointing women, then switched to a more frenzied, less precise modus operandi. If there were only Torso killings in 1889, after the Ripper slayings, I would have no problem suggesting they were the same man: that he began to realize that taking apart a woman's limbs did nothing for him and he looked to more intimate forms of murder to get his kicks.
But there was also the Rainham mystery in 1887 and the Whitehall Mystery in September of 1888, right in the middle of the Ripper killings.
My problem with it is that there's no logical progression, from [Torso murder]/[Torso murder]/[Ripper murder]/[Ripper murder][Ripper murder] or the inverse. You begin with a torso killing, then you get a series of rippings with a torso in betwixt them, then you conclude with torso killings in 1889.
Again, I get a killer can vary up his MO. But will he switch back and forth between different MOs seemingly at will?
But there was also the Rainham mystery in 1887 and the Whitehall Mystery in September of 1888, right in the middle of the Ripper killings.
My problem with it is that there's no logical progression, from [Torso murder]/[Torso murder]/[Ripper murder]/[Ripper murder][Ripper murder] or the inverse. You begin with a torso killing, then you get a series of rippings with a torso in betwixt them, then you conclude with torso killings in 1889.
Again, I get a killer can vary up his MO. But will he switch back and forth between different MOs seemingly at will?
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