If Jack killed Liz, why didn't he mutilate her? The most common explanation seems to be that he might have been interrupted. The longer that Jack was alone with her in the yard, the weaker that argument becomes. We naturally assume that Jack began his mutilations immediately after killing his victim. But what if Jack had some sort of ritual that he followed before beginning to cut? Something that was extremely important to him and something from which he would not deviate. It could have been so compulsive that had he been interrupted in mid ritual, he could no longer go forward with the act.
What do you think?
c.d.
What do you think?
c.d.
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