We've discussed the apron. We've discussed the graffito. But I think we've kind of taken the knife for granted. I'm putting this thread here rather than in the general victim discussion because I think it forms a trinity with the other two.
First of all, how does he carry it? I assume it's concealed until he needs it, but it's not a short blade and it doesn't sound like a clasp-knife. It's also extremely sharp. He could ram it into his belt under his jacket but I think the blade's too long and it might be seen. He could push it under his trousers but he risks doing to himself what he's been doing to his victims. He could hold it by the handle and push it up his sleeve but the same risks of cutting himself apply. He could have a scabbard for it--either nicely-made or jury-rigged--and put it somewhere under his jacket. But that might make it awkward to get at when he wants it because he's likely to want it real fast in in a particular situation where his victim might be struggling. I assume that is why he asphyxiates first but not all the women were asphyxiated.
Secondly--and this to me is really important--does he wipe it? Is there any evidence to show that he wipes it? A knife wiped free of blood will leave an unmistakeable mark on a piece of cloth if he simply folds the cloth and wipes both sides simultaneously. He might grab a piece of material and wipe one side and then the other but I think that would show up as a wipe-mark as well. I am assuming he wipes it because, if he doesn't, wherever he keeps it is going to commence to stink really soon and will not be easy to clean. This might attract attention to him that he really doesn't want. I also assume he wipes it because if he doesn't, the blade will start to deteriorate and dull. He prefers his knife sharp according to the medical evidence of the time. It certainly does not look like he wiped it on the piece of apron and if I read the evidence right, he didn't use it to cut the piece off until after he wiped the knife, because if he had there would be blood-trace evidence on the apron left behind. So he removes the organs, conceals them, wipes the knife, and then takes a piece of the apron. According to the inquest there was no blood on the front of the clothes but he must have wiped the knife somehow. If in fact he did do this, then he cannot have used the linen piece he took to carry the organs in. So he uses it for a different reason.
First of all, how does he carry it? I assume it's concealed until he needs it, but it's not a short blade and it doesn't sound like a clasp-knife. It's also extremely sharp. He could ram it into his belt under his jacket but I think the blade's too long and it might be seen. He could push it under his trousers but he risks doing to himself what he's been doing to his victims. He could hold it by the handle and push it up his sleeve but the same risks of cutting himself apply. He could have a scabbard for it--either nicely-made or jury-rigged--and put it somewhere under his jacket. But that might make it awkward to get at when he wants it because he's likely to want it real fast in in a particular situation where his victim might be struggling. I assume that is why he asphyxiates first but not all the women were asphyxiated.
Secondly--and this to me is really important--does he wipe it? Is there any evidence to show that he wipes it? A knife wiped free of blood will leave an unmistakeable mark on a piece of cloth if he simply folds the cloth and wipes both sides simultaneously. He might grab a piece of material and wipe one side and then the other but I think that would show up as a wipe-mark as well. I am assuming he wipes it because, if he doesn't, wherever he keeps it is going to commence to stink really soon and will not be easy to clean. This might attract attention to him that he really doesn't want. I also assume he wipes it because if he doesn't, the blade will start to deteriorate and dull. He prefers his knife sharp according to the medical evidence of the time. It certainly does not look like he wiped it on the piece of apron and if I read the evidence right, he didn't use it to cut the piece off until after he wiped the knife, because if he had there would be blood-trace evidence on the apron left behind. So he removes the organs, conceals them, wipes the knife, and then takes a piece of the apron. According to the inquest there was no blood on the front of the clothes but he must have wiped the knife somehow. If in fact he did do this, then he cannot have used the linen piece he took to carry the organs in. So he uses it for a different reason.
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