Originally posted by Fisherman
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Please note I'm not coming to this from the angle 'other compatible crimes were the result of psychosis possibly schizophrenia'
I'm look at what Anderson and Swanson say…
And at first glance Aaron doesn't look violent or like a typical paranoid serial killer. A point obviously noted by Martin Fido (Incidently one of my great heroes) He was looking for a very different and violent type of killer.
That's because perceived psychological wisdom back in the 1980's was that that was what he should be looking for..
I'm just saying that perhaps thats wrong because if the killer was suffering a form of hebephrenic schizophrenia in the very early stages… Then we would be looking at someone who was later, not only harmless but also unable to commit further murders.
So i'm looking at what is known and asking could Aaron fit… And I think that possible. I'm not equating Aaron condition is rare with Jack the Ripper is rare.. Although I think both statements would be true..
Even Trevor Marriot seems to accept the rarity of Jack the Ripper. He just concludes the murders were by different people. But given the rarity of mutilation murder in London 1888 per ce…I'd argue the opposite
Many thanks
Jeff
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