Originally posted by Michael W Richards
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The point is surely why Schwartz would have said anything about initially thinking Pipeman was an accomplice called Lipski, if you believe his remit was to give the police 'another' murder by a lone maniac, who was neither Jewish nor associated with the club?? Why introduce the idea of an accomplice to begin with, and then make it ambiguous as to whom the name Lipski may have been addressed?
The interpretation Abberline [the 'authorities'] arrived at may or may not have been the correct one. I don't give a rat's arse either way. But it wasn't Schwartz's when he made his statement.
How hard can this be to grasp?
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