Originally posted by Outlaw
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Are we to believe that the previous murders were not brutal enough for a warning? Exactly how much brutality is required? If they weren't, why did he bother? What took him so long to ramp up his work? Why muddy the waters by letting himself be written off as just killing any old hooker? Wouldn't that help people overlook his message? If they were, then why is Miss Kelly alone considered a carefully chosen messager?
Then, too, what warning is the killer trying to convey? I've heard it said before the Ripper murders were an intent to terrorize prostitutes out of their profession, but why on earth is the killer trying to warn the Irish? Is Stride's murder a warning to the Swedish? With all due respect, I don't understand how anyone of Irish extraction is supposed to hear about the murders and think, "Gee, it must be because she's Irish. I'd better watch out!" Wouldn't we have to expect some kind of direct communication - "The Irish are the men that...", etc - if that was his intent?
(Actually, it should say "Eyrishe." Then we can claim that the killer was an obsessive Charlotte Bronte fan...)
I hope you'll elaborate on your theory. Perhaps some of these gaps could be filled by explanation?

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