Originally posted by Ben
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You know, I feel that I've entered a kind of twilight world of dubious connections. Thus, because a man boards a ship from Tilbury we're supposed to infer that he resided in Whitechapel! I don't think so. Even if you're correct in assuming that he would have travelled to his nearest port, then he still could have come from an extremely wide area. For instance, he could have been resident in any of the home counties, I.e. Berkshire, Buckinghamshire, Essex, Surrey, Kent and Sussex. And might he not also have travelled from East Anglia, I.e. Norfolk, Suffolk, Cambridgeshire?
Even if he lived in the Metropolis (Middlesex and the LCC region), we're still talking about a city of 5.6 million people. Now considering that the population of Whitechapel was around 80000 in the 1880s, the statistical probability that he came from there is extremely small.
And what about the labouring connection. Well, Abberline believed that Whitechapel George was unemployed, and various newspaper reports refer to him as either a labourer or unemployed groom. Tom Cullen even suggested he was a nightwatchman. And what about "Apparently of the labouring classes"? Yes, that's pretty conclusive!
Aussie George, on the other hand was referred to in the official records as a "tinsmith", a skilled occupation . Now that suggests to me that he may well have had the same skilled occupation before leaving England. In fact, many emigrants to Australia had already secured jobs prior to departure, which makes sense for a skilled worker, a lot less so for an impoverished labourer.
And if Whitechapel George had such a skill, I doubt that he would ever refer to himself as a mere unemployed labourer/groom/nightwatchman.
Of course, it's possible that Aussie George had temporarily taken up labouring, but there can be any number of explanations for this, such as losing his skilled job on account of the accusations made against him and his subsequent conviction, which makes sense if tinsmith was listed as his occupation "previous to conviction."
The article suggests the reason for his departure may have been the murder of Alice McKenzie. Well, if they're going to suggest McKenzie was a possible or likely Ripper victim then I think I'll counter by proposing Austin, which would rule Aussie George out completely. In fact, for those who like connections Austin was murdered in Dorset Street, just like Kelly.
And why did he not flea after apparently being seen by Lewis? Why hang around Whitechapel for several months, before murdering another victim, and then deciding it was time to make a quick getaway? Well, not that quick, as the Ormuz sailed three months after McKenzie's murder. But then, why let common sense get in the way of a good story.
Then the article refers to dear Sarah Lewis. Yes, the witness who didn't actually live in Dorset Street but was visiting the mysterious, and as yet unidentified, Keylers (in fact so mysterious that we have several different name spellings.) And, incredibly, just before seeing the suspect who may or may not have been George Hutchinson (she paid him scant attention, so only provided a vague description), she re-encounters the far more Devilish Bethnal Green Man, fully equipped with archetypal black bag, who two days earlier, and in a different district, tried to diabolically inveigle her into a lonely narrow passage. By the way, is it just me or is this starting to resemble a Jacobean drama?
Anyway,what does Ripper George do in response to not being recognized by a witness who paid him scant attention, providing only a vague description. Well, he reports to the police station, of course, and then places himself in the vicinity of a murder that he'd committed, and at a time when the murder may have been committed. Unbelievable!
I ask you, is there any precedent for such inbecility? Not so much Jack the Ripper as Jack the Totally Stupid.
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