Originally posted by Herlock Sholmes
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The point made was/is: in the event you have a group of people whose cultural habits dictate they do not behave in a certain manner in public, while another group of people's cultural habits do lend towards behaving that way in public; then the likelihood is that a drunken, brawling fella belongs to that group whose cultural habits accept that kind of behaviour.
Not definite, not certain, but rather: likely.
And of course, this isn't pie in the sky. We have contemporary sources from the age which tell us that Jewish customs and non-Jewish British working class customs were very much different in regard to street behaviour.
It is about likelihood; it's not definite. There are rogue elements in any group of human beings and so it's not beyond the realms of possibility that a Jewish man would have a drunken brawl in the street, but it is unlikely that the man under discussion was Jewish simply because it was not an accepted part of Jewish custom; while it was an accepted part of non-Jewish British working class custom.
I suppose it is 'generalising' in a fashion, but it is underpinned by historical, social studies and contemporary sources, and so there is solid basis for the likelihood that the man under discussion wasn't Jewish. 'Generalisation' in itself is not the negative you appear to think it is. In fact, it is an essential component of science given that we cannot sample an entire population.
You appear to be arguing that because we have not considered any and every possible Jewish man of the age, then the historical social studies and contemporary sources are irrelevant to the question of whether or not a drunken, brawling man is likely to have been Jewish or otherwise.
I reckon your logic is flawed.
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