Originally posted by Tom_Wescott
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I quote (from Jack the Ripper Sourcebook) Dr Phillips: "The right arm was over the belly. The back of the hand and wrist had on it clotted blood", (inquest testimony) and further on, "Coroner: "Have you formed any opinion how the right hand of the deceased was covered in blood?" Witness: "No; that is a mystery."
I know that the transference theory has been put forward as an explanation, but a) can clots be transferred in this way? and b) would enough blood have been transferred in this way to form clots?
Best wishes,
C4
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