Ok, I hope I am not going over old ground too much here but I have been dying to get a good discussion going on this again.
I have been pondering some of the reasons why Martha Tabram is not considered a Ripper victim and have come up with some questions that I feel I haven't been addressed to my complete understanding.
1 - She's not a C5. What gets me here is that there are issues with other things that Sir Melville Macnaughten has said so why is this seeming accepted as gospel?
2. She was stabbed not ripped. This too gets me. Why wouldn't the killer discover that he enjoyed the feel of the flesh where it had given and then move towards that after Tabram's death.
I always doubt Stride and personally see a lot more of the Ripper's work in Tabram than in Stride.
I have been pondering some of the reasons why Martha Tabram is not considered a Ripper victim and have come up with some questions that I feel I haven't been addressed to my complete understanding.
1 - She's not a C5. What gets me here is that there are issues with other things that Sir Melville Macnaughten has said so why is this seeming accepted as gospel?
2. She was stabbed not ripped. This too gets me. Why wouldn't the killer discover that he enjoyed the feel of the flesh where it had given and then move towards that after Tabram's death.
I always doubt Stride and personally see a lot more of the Ripper's work in Tabram than in Stride.
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