Originally posted by Tom_Wescott
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I'm referring to point that with the throat cut, the whole act ends.
Now either that is perfect timing on Diemshitz part, or the killer had done what he wished to do.
Which is the most likely?
And if he had done what he wished to do then is it likely that we have a regression in mutilation after Nichols and Chapman?
Or is it Stride was not of the same hand?
Throat cut....then nothing.
Monty
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