Originally posted by MrBarnett
View Post
And this is precisely why I am suggesting that any claim that the woman was murdered by having her throat cut is not proven...not by a long shot.
Could she have had her throat cut?
Yes, but to accept this, we are to believe that the murderer cut her throat (and remember that in some cases the Ripper cut his victim’s throats clear down to the spinal column, with a clear attempt at decapitation), but nonetheless decided to leave her head attached for several days while cutting off the legs. When he finally got around to removing the head, he did not simply continue with the throat cut that he had started (which by now would have had similar signs of drying and blackening at the front edges of the throat, just as the legs did) but made an entirely new cut, further down, leaving no trace of the original throat cut, which otherwise would have left tell-tale signs of decomposition. If not, surely Hebbert would have noticed some sign of drying skin and blackened flesh where the throat was originally cut and bled?
Is it possible that entirely new cuts were made? Again, yes. But if such were the case (and here is the key point): there would be no remaining evidence that the victim's throat HAD been cut in the first place, beyond the victim having died from hemorrhaging. The entirety of the neck wound was described as 'moist and red.'
And this doesn’t contradict Phillips one iota, because he admitted there was no evidence that the cause of death was the throat being cut—it was ‘supposition.’
Originally posted by MrBarnett
View Post
This comment appears to be missing or avoiding the point. Clearly it is Christer's theory that the two cases are connected, not mine, so the attempt at turning the tables is unwarranted.
If something is obscured, it is obscured. If the cuts that removed the head “obscured the throat cuts,” as Phillips suggested, and left the entirety of the neck ‘moist and red,’ as Hebbert described, how do we know there were any throat cuts to begin with? Answer: we don’t. It is solely an assumption based on the victim having bled to death. Phillips makes this clear. There was no sign of stomach or lung bleeding, so he assumed it must have been a throat wound—though he was honest enough to admit there was no direct evidence of this.
Is this so difficult to accept?
And with no evidence to show how the victim died, we are left with a theory---and this is what Phillips admitted. The victim’s throat having been cut was a “supposition and only a supposition."
Apparently some here want to disregard Phillip’s admitted uncertainty, in a race to place an alleged throat slashing at the doorstep of Lechmere’s mother. I merely point out the difficulties in accepting Phillip’s theory, based on Hebbert’s notes and Swanson’s report, coupled with simple logic.
And, as I noted, people can bleed to death from head wounds or from leg wounds. I have no idea why Phillips did not raise these possibilities. But considering that both the head and the legs were missing, just as any evidence of an earlier throat cut was missing, I maintain that any insinuation that this is ‘similar’ to a Ripper crime is strictly theoretical, and, in some degree, illogical, considering the pains the Ripper took to divide his victim’s spinal columns at the time he murdered them. Equally, we must acknowledge that he failed in those attempts.
By contrast, whoever was involved in the Pinchin Street case knew how to divide the spinal column, yet didn’t do so for several days, showing that his motivation was entirely different from the Ripper’s. Since it was done soon before dumping the body, the obvious implication is that it was done to destroy evidence: the victim’s identity, to be specific, which is the hallmark of a domestic killing. Even if the Ripper learned how to separate the spine between 1888 and September 1889, why didn’t he do so immediately? Why wait until just before dumping the body, leaving the throat red and moist? And several days after the legs had been cut off? Did the Ripper ever exhibit such patience when attacking his victim’s throats?
Are the questions I raised now understood?
This, along with all lack of relevant genital injuries, is why I believe Monro, Macnaghten, and others were skeptical that the Pinchin Street victim was the work of the 'Ripper.'
Uncertainty exists, of course, but the motivations appear to be different, and there is reasonable doubt that the victim was even a street ‘unfortunate.’
Leave a comment: