Originally posted by Pontius2000
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I’ll assume that you agree that unless there is something unusual- such as early graying or early balding- there really are no discernible differences visually between a 23 and 30 year old.
In that case, you're making an incorrect assumption.
There obviously is a difference between the appearance of a 23-year-old and a 30-year-old; otherwise, police wouldn't ask witnesses to give an estimate.
The judge didn’t ask in Yiddish and nothing was said about an interpreter.
How would we know whether anything was said in Yiddish?
I suggest you re-read my previous answer.
No drunkenness amongst Jews in the East End.
I refer you to a comment I made, to which you have made no response:
It was well-known that public displays of drunkenness by Jews in the East End of London were unheard of.
And it was noted by a leading detective in the Whitechapel Murders case.
I’d wonder how you propose that Jacob Levy got syphilis.
That's a good question, but you have never mentioned the fact that Jacob Levy was 5 ft 3 ins.
I do hope you are not going to ask me how one can tell the difference between someone who is 5 feet 3 inches tall and five foot 7 inches tall.
by your logic, I guess many black people don’t call each other a certain anti-black racial slur either do they? See every single rap album from the past 30 years as proof to the contrary.
Suggesting that the content of rap albums has any relevance to the way in which Jews in the East End of London addressed each other in 1888 is obviously not a valid point.
there you go again with the old passing your opinion off as fact. You weren’t there and have no clue what was said. There may have been one word, or more context, which of course the witness himself would not have known because it is established that he could barely speak any English.
The evidence is that only one word - an insult - was spoken.
That makes it a fact, to the best of our knowledge, unless you want to dismiss Schwarz as a credible witness, in which case he cannot be used to prove Kosminski's guilt.
I know what the evidence is, but you don't accept it.
In that case, there is no case against Kosminski.
A Hungarian who could speak almost no English would be able to differentiate the difference between a British and Polish accent based on hearing a single word in a split second under stress. That makes no logical sense.
Schwarz wasn't Hungarian.
He was Polish.
The word would not have taken a split-second to say, but about one second.
The man's pronunciation of the 'i's in 'Lipski' would have given away the fact that he was a native born Londoner and not a Pole.
That makes perfect sense if you know something about the Polish language and the differences in pronunciation.
If you don't have any familiarity with Polish, then you really have no right to say that my argument is illogical.
-maybe “Lipski” was indeed used as a slur and maybe it wasn’t. We can’t know because the one who heard it could barely speak English.
Since 'Lipski' was an anti-Jewish slur which was even chalked on the walls in Whitechapel, we can assume that Schwarz recognised it and, since the name is recognisably Polish, even when shouted by an Englishman, Schwarz was obviously capable of recognising it.
Schwarz's lack of knowledge of English is irrelevant.
But anyone of these witnesses COULD have assumed that the suspect was Jewish and not had it absolutely confirmed until the seaside home.
Well, I think your argument is not credible, because if the witness thought the suspect was Jewish and was unwilling to testify against him on account of his being Jewish, then why on earth would he have gone to the police?
You however seem to be under the impression that because the files were pilfered and stolen, that means the evidence never existed at all and these officials were lying. That sir, is what is “not credible”.
By 'these officials', I take it you mean Anderson and Swanson.
I didn't say they were lying - just fantasising.
If Anderson and Swanson were telling the truth, why is it that no-one else knew about it?
Abberline and Smith stated categorically that they had no idea who the murderer was.
Why did Anderson say previously that the man was never identified?
Why did Anderson say 'I am merely stating a definitely ascertained fact' when neither Abberline nor Smith knew anything about it?
Why would the knowledge of a definitely ascertained fact be restricted to a circle of two people?
It's not as though Anderson was trying to keep the story secret - is it?
you have no idea whether or not he associated with prostitutes. and if a person were extremely sick and had uncontrollable fantasies of butchering women, their religious beliefs wouldn’t come into it anyway. a sick person is a sick person, no matter how religious they were raised to be.
There is no evidence that Kosminski ever associated with prostitutes.
He had schizophrenia, not syphilis.
According to his carers, he was harmless, which doesn't suggest he had any 'uncontrollable fantasies of butchering women'.
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