Here we have a man who for all we know ventured to go hunting humans whenever he had a bad day. He carried with him a knife with a blade length estimated to have been 6-8 inch long. Certainly he carried the means to swiftly dispatch his chosen victim. And yet, he chose not to use it.
Quite simply, as he is posing as their client he would have no trouble making bodily contact with one hand clasped over her mouth and a swift thrust of the knife through her heart would be the most efficient means of dispatch.
Why then did he decide to render them unconscious or at least subdue them by the uncertain and challenging method of strangulation?
I suspect he used a garrott, but that's just me, however he chose to render them unconscious the question must be asked, why, especially when he is equipped with a knife, is difficult to explain.
If the mutilation was where he got his kicks, then why strangle them?, an unnecessary and distracting waste of effort. Just stab them and get on with the good stuff!
Unless, it is the act of strangulation, being face-to-face, or at least close up to hear her struggle to breathe, her gasp, the gurgle of her choking her last breath.
Perhaps this was where he obtained his 'kicks', not the subsequent mutilation.
Watching your victim die slowly and up close by strangulation is more on a par with poisoning, where you also watch your victim slowly suffer to death. In poisoning you also have power over them, you know something they don't know. It's rather like holding the cord tight, you are in control of their last few seconds alive.
The differences are not so far apart.
Why the Ripper mutilated his victims is not known, but Chapman could hardly go and mutilate his "wives" after they died, there wouldn't be a whole lot of suspects to choose from!
I don't suspect Chapman was the Ripper either (no evidence) but I'm not sure the arguments to discard him from being a suspect are completely valid. A great deal depends on what is assumed about the Ripper in the first place.
Regards, Jon S.
Quite simply, as he is posing as their client he would have no trouble making bodily contact with one hand clasped over her mouth and a swift thrust of the knife through her heart would be the most efficient means of dispatch.
Why then did he decide to render them unconscious or at least subdue them by the uncertain and challenging method of strangulation?
I suspect he used a garrott, but that's just me, however he chose to render them unconscious the question must be asked, why, especially when he is equipped with a knife, is difficult to explain.
If the mutilation was where he got his kicks, then why strangle them?, an unnecessary and distracting waste of effort. Just stab them and get on with the good stuff!
Unless, it is the act of strangulation, being face-to-face, or at least close up to hear her struggle to breathe, her gasp, the gurgle of her choking her last breath.
Perhaps this was where he obtained his 'kicks', not the subsequent mutilation.
Watching your victim die slowly and up close by strangulation is more on a par with poisoning, where you also watch your victim slowly suffer to death. In poisoning you also have power over them, you know something they don't know. It's rather like holding the cord tight, you are in control of their last few seconds alive.
The differences are not so far apart.
Why the Ripper mutilated his victims is not known, but Chapman could hardly go and mutilate his "wives" after they died, there wouldn't be a whole lot of suspects to choose from!
I don't suspect Chapman was the Ripper either (no evidence) but I'm not sure the arguments to discard him from being a suspect are completely valid. A great deal depends on what is assumed about the Ripper in the first place.
Regards, Jon S.
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