Ben, desperate:
"If you think Leander was saying that there was a likeness in all handwriting elements, then we know for certain you're wrong. If that was the case, why on earth would he go on to mention specific differences concerning the handwriting elements? Please just think about it before."
Once again, Ben, what technical elements of writing did he NOT mention?
"Ah, but the manual never said any such thing"
Ah, but it DID.
"This is a "subsequent clarification", not his first letter, but notice the contradiction again. He's claiming this time that he didn't see any discrepances other than in the "amplitude between the expressions". Why, then, did the differences he specifically listed in his first post have nothing whatsoever to do with the "amplitude between the expressions"?"
The description of "amplitude" referred to the general, overall impression.
"I wouldn't quibble with the suggestion that there are obvious liknesses in certain respects. But then there are equally obvious dissimilarities in certain respects."
But that is not what he says, is it? He never even mentions any discrepancies. He is very exact and very spot on: When he uses the expression "cannot be ruled out" he recognizes that there are obvious likenesses in certain respects.
There is no other interpretation at hand but the obvious one: In Leanders world - and that is the world described in the manual! - "cannot be ruled out" is a manner of describing obvious likenesses having been found.
Once he has made this very, very clear, why on earth would we listen to you when you tell us that this cannot be? To what does your assertion that "cannot be ruled out" can only point to neutrality - when we KNOW, and have directly from Leanders mouth that in HIS WORLD, "cannot be ruled out" is NOT a neutral stance - possibly amount?
Why would anybody favour your take on things? Why would your recommendations for a semantic understanding of the expression carry any weight at all, long as we KNOW that you are wrong?
Why would we disallow Frank Leander, an expert in the field, to use an expression that has been used on innumerable occasions by himself and the SKL and quite possibly the whole conglomerate of forensic handstyle experts, just because you are having major difficulties of understanding it?
To whom would such a stance make sense, do you think? Who would side with you and say, "Yeah, letīs deny him the right to work from a semantic expression that does not tally with our own!" Who, Ben?
"In my world, the expression cannot be ruled out belongs to the same parish as there are obvious likenesses in certain respects"
There is no opening here for any other interpretation than the one I am making alongside Leander himself. He does not say that it CAN belong to the same parish - he firmly puts it beyond doubt that this is where it DOES belong.
You are getting bogged so deep down in this that your only hope to keep floatinīis your balls, Ben.
Are they filled with air?
Fisherman
tired of this game for the moment being. But you know, Ben - I may be back!
Fisherman
"If you think Leander was saying that there was a likeness in all handwriting elements, then we know for certain you're wrong. If that was the case, why on earth would he go on to mention specific differences concerning the handwriting elements? Please just think about it before."
Once again, Ben, what technical elements of writing did he NOT mention?
"Ah, but the manual never said any such thing"
Ah, but it DID.
"This is a "subsequent clarification", not his first letter, but notice the contradiction again. He's claiming this time that he didn't see any discrepances other than in the "amplitude between the expressions". Why, then, did the differences he specifically listed in his first post have nothing whatsoever to do with the "amplitude between the expressions"?"
The description of "amplitude" referred to the general, overall impression.
"I wouldn't quibble with the suggestion that there are obvious liknesses in certain respects. But then there are equally obvious dissimilarities in certain respects."
But that is not what he says, is it? He never even mentions any discrepancies. He is very exact and very spot on: When he uses the expression "cannot be ruled out" he recognizes that there are obvious likenesses in certain respects.
There is no other interpretation at hand but the obvious one: In Leanders world - and that is the world described in the manual! - "cannot be ruled out" is a manner of describing obvious likenesses having been found.
Once he has made this very, very clear, why on earth would we listen to you when you tell us that this cannot be? To what does your assertion that "cannot be ruled out" can only point to neutrality - when we KNOW, and have directly from Leanders mouth that in HIS WORLD, "cannot be ruled out" is NOT a neutral stance - possibly amount?
Why would anybody favour your take on things? Why would your recommendations for a semantic understanding of the expression carry any weight at all, long as we KNOW that you are wrong?
Why would we disallow Frank Leander, an expert in the field, to use an expression that has been used on innumerable occasions by himself and the SKL and quite possibly the whole conglomerate of forensic handstyle experts, just because you are having major difficulties of understanding it?
To whom would such a stance make sense, do you think? Who would side with you and say, "Yeah, letīs deny him the right to work from a semantic expression that does not tally with our own!" Who, Ben?
"In my world, the expression cannot be ruled out belongs to the same parish as there are obvious likenesses in certain respects"
There is no opening here for any other interpretation than the one I am making alongside Leander himself. He does not say that it CAN belong to the same parish - he firmly puts it beyond doubt that this is where it DOES belong.
You are getting bogged so deep down in this that your only hope to keep floatinīis your balls, Ben.
Are they filled with air?
Fisherman
tired of this game for the moment being. But you know, Ben - I may be back!
Fisherman
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