Originally posted by Fisherman
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I would like to answer this too. I have no sources indicating that he committed any murder before 1888. But the question concerning your question is not only if he was at some peak of self confidence in August 1888.
I think the question is why he murdered and mutilated a prostitute on an open street with very few possibilities for escape and after this he changed his MO since he only murdered and mutilated prostitutes in courtyards and in a room (discussing the C5 now). Why did he do this? I am sure you and I have the exact same answer to that question but for quite different reasons.
Could both be right?
Regards Pierre
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