Originally posted by John G
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Jack the Ripper is an extremely rare serial killer
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Originally posted by John G View PostThe lack of extensive neck injuries is highly relevant because it means the signature characteristic of overkill is absent: see Keppel (2005). In fact, the neck injuries in the earlier cases were so great that it's been argued that the perpetrator(s) may have been attempting to decapitate the victim.
The abdominal injuries were also relatively minor when compared with the earlier cases and therefore there's no evidence that the killer intended to target the organs, unlike the earlier cases. He may have been disturbed but there are no witnesses to support this theory.
Note: overkill, in respect of the extensive neck injuries in the earlier cases, is a signature characteristic because the wounds inflicted went far beyond what would have been necessary to kill or incapacitate the victims.
The issue I have with this approach is that it attempts to set hard and fast rules for human behaviour as if it were say a chemical reaction.
Human behaviour can and does change, and IF Mackenzie is killed by the same killer, and that is a big IF, then I beleive much had changed in his life.
He may have been looking over his shoulder all the time so to speak, being aware he had been watched for a period of time.
However if Bury is the killer that all goes out the window does it not?
So the question is are the similarities between Bury and the other cases strong or are they superficial.
There are no wounds to the Neck, the victim is strangled with a rope.
The abdominal wounds do bare a resemblance to Mackenzie but not really the others, it's not about skill shown or not, but there is no degree of overkill at all; and importantly no neck wound.
The probability is that neither case are the work of JR, either could be but obviously not both. And personally I consider Mackenzie to be the more likely of the two. You obviously believing in Bury must disagree.
All the best
Steve
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Originally posted by John G View PostPerhaps, but it's an incidental point anyway. The fact is Nichols would have been the first evisceration murder and, unlike Mackenzie, it still bore all the hallmarks of the latter evisceration murders.
It therefore makes no sense to argue that he was out of practice when Mackenzie was killed, as he hadn't had any practice at all at the time of the Nichols murder.
John,
If the killer was the same for Nichols to Mackenzie, he stopped for a reason, that reason may have a bareing on how such a killer responds after the Break. Confidence and personal estime may be very low, there may even have been a deterioration in mental or physical ability.
Like any process, if one does not perform it for a period one may be hesitant when first trying again.
That coupled with a very real possability that he heard someone approaching may have had an effect.
In addition, the presence of what appear to be pointless minor cuts is seen in other murders in the series, Nichols being very similar on that point
Steve
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Originally posted by John G View PostYes, and all the time in the world to demonstrate a high level of skill and yet the opposite happens.
Thanks for the reply, I personally place little credence on statements of skill or not.
The fact the Doctors disagreed shows just how subjective such a term is?
Steve
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Originally posted by John G View PostNot according to Dr Bond. Or, for that matter, Dr Phillips, who described the injuries as "most wanton."
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Originally posted by jerryd View PostHi John,
I'm not sure I know what you mean about lack of neck mutilations? There were differing opinions on whether or not she was a ripper victim. Dr. Bond and James Monro came to the conclusion she was killed by the same hand as the others whereas Dr. Phillips disagreed.
As far as signature characteristics, she was targeted with a knife in the abdomen and genitals and had her throat cut twice. Just not from ear to ear. Her dress was thrown up to her face as in other cases. She was killed in the same general area as the others. I think she has a lot going for her in similarities. The lack of extensive mutilation is possibly, as I stated earlier, due to time constraint. No, I can't absolutely prove he was disturbed, but I feel from the evidence he very well might have been.
The abdominal injuries were also relatively minor when compared with the earlier cases and therefore there's no evidence that the killer intended to target the organs, unlike the earlier cases. He may have been disturbed but there are no witnesses to support this theory.
Note: overkill, in respect of the extensive neck injuries in the earlier cases, is a signature characteristic because the wounds inflicted went far beyond what would have been necessary to kill or incapacitate the victims.
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Originally posted by Sam Flynn View PostWe don't have much in the way of opinion in that regard re Kelly. For all we know, the liver, spleen, kidneys, uterus and bladder could have been neatly removed.
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Originally posted by Elamarna View PostBecause Nichols was not the first attack. If that was Tabram, Millwood or Wilson I have no idea. However I am convinced she was not the first.
Evidence of being disturbed?
The blood was still flowing from the Neck wounds, shades of Bucks Row John.
That suggests no more that the killer had only recently left, very possibly when he heard approaching footsteps.
Steve
It therefore makes no sense to argue that he was out of practice when Mackenzie was killed, as he hadn't had any practice at all at the time of the Nichols murder.
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Originally posted by Elamarna View PostJohn, I disagree. It's a very long gap since Miller's Court, and he is very probably disturbed
No similar, but one is in the open, probably disturbed, the othervin his own home. All the time in the world to do what he wants.
If all the other murders had been like Alice, it would I think be a stronger argument.
Steve
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Originally posted by John G View PostIf out of practice, how does that explain Nichols, the first in the series, where the signature characteristic of overkill is present as are the extensive abdominal mutilations?
Where's the evidence the killer was disturbed?
Evidence of being disturbed?
The blood was still flowing from the Neck wounds, shades of Bucks Row John.
That suggests no more that the killer had only recently left, very possibly when he heard approaching footsteps.
Steve
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Originally posted by John G View PostBut the level of overkill-part of a murderer's signature-was extreme at Miller's Court and therefore on a far greater level than seen in the Mackenzie murder. In fact, the perpetrator must have been in an absolutely frenzy, so in this respect more reminiscent of the Tabram murder. I, therefore, honestly don't think this can simply be dismissed as a killer who is out of practice.
Originally posted by John G View PostMoreover, unlike the other C5 murders Kelly's perpetrator demonstrated no skill whatsoever. There could be explanations to explain these anomalies but, on the face of it, it's difficult to reconcile Kelly's murder with Mackenzie's.
By the way, do you think the level of abdominal mutilation was any greater in the case of Mackenzie than Ellen Bury?
If all the other murders had been like Alice, it would I think be a stronger argument.
Steve
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Originally posted by John G View PostBut in the case of Kelly the organs were pretty much hacked out, or plucked out.
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Neither Ellen Bury or Alice McKenzie were "perfect" Ripper-esque murders. Ellen Bury's wound was deeper than McKenzie's. Ellen Bury was strangled, while Alice McKenzie's throat was stabbed. McKenzie was a prostitute killed on the Ripper's turf, but Ellen Bury was killed in closer time proximity to the other Ripper victims. It's a toss-up as to which was a Ripper murder or not, but probability-wise it's difficult to accept both as non-canonicals.
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Originally posted by jerryd View PostHi Sam,
I don't think the killer of Alice McKenzie had as much time (not that the killer of the Nichols, Chapman and Eddowes had a lot of time) to accomplish extensive mutilations. He did quite a lot of damage in the time allotted with her though, in my opinion.
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Originally posted by John G View PostThat's one explanation, but there's no proof of this and it doesn't adequately explain the lack of neck mutilations. In fact, Keppel (2005) rejected Mackenzie as a Ripper victim because of lack of signature characteristics.
The argument is even stronger in respect of Coles, because in that case wel know the perpetrator was disturbed.
I'm not sure I know what you mean about lack of neck mutilations? There were differing opinions on whether or not she was a ripper victim. Dr. Bond and James Monro came to the conclusion she was killed by the same hand as the others whereas Dr. Phillips disagreed.
As far as signature characteristics, she was targeted with a knife in the abdomen and genitals and had her throat cut twice. Just not from ear to ear. Her dress was thrown up to her face as in other cases. She was killed in the same general area as the others. I think she has a lot going for her in similarities. The lack of extensive mutilation is possibly, as I stated earlier, due to time constraint. No, I can't absolutely prove he was disturbed, but I feel from the evidence he very well might have been.
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