Although we can’t be certain whether Mackenzie was a victim or not I think that it has to be said that there appear to be real reasons for doubt. The obvious one is that we see an increase in the level of damage done by the killer from Nichols to Chapman to Eddowes to Kelly and then we get Mackenzie. Why?
Then we get this:
“Neither abdominal cavity opened – or muscular covering divided.”
It difficult to see why someone that had no problem ripping open four previous victims suddenly satisfies himself with this? It surely can’t be blamed on time because we would have to ask why the time wasted on making the scratches? So to me it smacks of someone that didn’t actually want to open up the abdomen which I can’t equate with the ripper.
I’m no medical man but this appears to me to be someone perhaps trying to make this look like a ripper murder. I’ve often wondered if the killer was someone that she knew? Someone who thought that if he made it appear to have been a ripper murder he would be out of the police spotlight if he had alibis for the other murders? Or maybe it was just a disturbed/drunken killer who was simply trying to copy the ripper?
Opinions will continue to differ on this. I’d be more inclined to view this more positively if it had occurred between Tabram and Nichols.
Then we get this:
“Neither abdominal cavity opened – or muscular covering divided.”
It difficult to see why someone that had no problem ripping open four previous victims suddenly satisfies himself with this? It surely can’t be blamed on time because we would have to ask why the time wasted on making the scratches? So to me it smacks of someone that didn’t actually want to open up the abdomen which I can’t equate with the ripper.
I’m no medical man but this appears to me to be someone perhaps trying to make this look like a ripper murder. I’ve often wondered if the killer was someone that she knew? Someone who thought that if he made it appear to have been a ripper murder he would be out of the police spotlight if he had alibis for the other murders? Or maybe it was just a disturbed/drunken killer who was simply trying to copy the ripper?
Opinions will continue to differ on this. I’d be more inclined to view this more positively if it had occurred between Tabram and Nichols.
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