Originally posted by fido
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First he implies that the relevant information he has omitted to supply his readers with, so that they can reach a conclusion based on the full evidence available, was that supplied by Melvin Harris (his arch-foe now deceased) 'out of context' - examples please. This is simply not the case, Melvin was one of those who supplied omitted information, notably the 1895 Windsor Magazine piece on Anderson. But information has been supplied by others including Nick Connell and me.
The very important 1889 Anderson interview by R. Harding Davies, not first located by Melvin Harris, simply cannot be described as 'every scrap of anti-Andersonian "proof"'. It is relevant, important and very telling in respect of Martin's theory. So why has he omitted it, even after he has been made aware of it? In fact it has since been used by his own co-author, Paul Begg, to support the dismissal of Martin's theory.
Also, how can Anderson's own statements be described as 'anti-Andersonian'? I'm still puzzling over that one!
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