Why didn't Jack rape his victims?

[JTRSickert]

Since it is generally accepted that JTR killed in order to achieve a certain unusual way of getting sexual gratification, the question I have is: why weren't any of the victims attributed to JTR shown as having any signs of having been sexually violated by him? if you read the facts about the case, you'll notice that the doctors did check the victims for signs of any recent sexual activity (which is referred to in the notes as "connection") or any traces of semen found on the bodies, and in both cases, neither were present. However, it is difficult to say in Kelly's case since the murder took place in a private dwelling and the lower half of her torso and genital area was mutilated beyond recognition. That being said, as far as the other victims are concerned, why do you think Jack did not rape his victims? Among the popular reasons are:

1. Setting Circumstances. Since most of the killings took place out in the open, Jack didn't have the time or place to commit such an act. he only had time to fulfill his need to murder and, afterwards, took a trophy with him which he probably used to self-gratify with later on when "re-living" the murder in the privacy of his dwelling.

2. Physically incapable- Jack was impotent. Possibly due to severe psychological trauma suffered by abuse as a child, Jack was incapable of getting an erection though normal, sexual stimulation. The only way he could accomplish this was by killing.

3. Genital deformity- I know this is gonna remind people of the Cornwall/Sickert theory, but I think it should be mentioned. Jack may have been either born with a debilitating defect or suffered severe physical damage from an accident or attack etc. that resulted in his male reproductive organs to either be damaged or misshapen. On the TV show "Nip/Tuck" the serial killer known as The Carver attacks people because, among other reasons, he was born as a eunuch due to genetic damage when he was conceived.

4. Personal safety- Since many prostitutes at that time were afflicted with veneral diseases, Jack did not rape in order to not risk getting infected.

[lynn cates]

sex

Hello JTR. You cover many bases here. Permit me to add another to the list.

5. Sex had nothing to do with it (whatever "it" refers to).

Just a thought.

The best.
LC

[JTRSickert]

True, lynn. I should have included that as well. Or here is another one for ya, though it is the most unlikely of reasons....

6. Jack didn't rape because he was a "she."

[lynn cates]

right

Hello JTR. That's true enough. I hadn't thought of that.

Seriously, in each of the C5, as you point out, the doctors were thinking in terms of sex. The police, at least initially, thought in terms of a lunatic. It is enlightening to read the memoranda of the various "top cops" and see them doing precisely what we are doing--theorising.

Cheers.
LC

[robhouse]

I would think the most likely reason JTR did not have sex with his victims is that he didnt want to.

[SaraCarter33]

Can't argue with that lol.

[JTRSickert]

HEy c'mon guys...let's show a little respect here. We're talking about actual people who lived and were murdered here.

Besides, not that it matters, but Kelly and Stride were considered to be fairly attractive.

[Bailey]

I'll go with the concept that killing and mutilation were pretty much sexual substitutes and therefore, in effect, he did.

Another question that has occurred to me a few times over the years - if these women were all working prostitutes, one of whom claimed to have earned and spent her doss money three times that evening, why did none of them show any signs of sexual activity?

B.

[robhouse]

I did not mean that he did not want to have sex with them because they were unattractive. I meant that the Ripper was motivated by the desire to mutilate the women... not to have sex with them.

You might just as well ask why the Ripper did not so any imaginable thing at the crime scene... for example, why did he not urinate on the victims? The most likely answer is that he did not want (desire) to do so.

You seem to have asked the question based on the assumption that he obviously would have wanted to have sex with the victims. The likelihood is that he did not.

[SaraCarter33]

i apologize if i offended anyone with my comment.

[Phil Carter]

I meant that the Ripper was motivated by the desire to mutilate the women... not to have sex with them.

Hello Rob,

I agree. Murder and mutilation primarily, were uppermost in the killer's mind, in my opinion. This smacks of a demonstration of sorts. A "showing" perhaps. Exhibitionistic. Deliberate. It screams "LOOK AT WHAT I'VE DONE" These mutilations reek of the "in your face" effect.

best wishes

Phil

[Hunter]

I would be inclined to agree with that if there were no organs taken as 'trophies' or for whatever reason. The type of women and the fact that all but one had to work in the street would naturally leave them that way, regardless of their killer's motive.

[Adam Went]

There were major time constraints in most of the murders, and since sex was clearly not his main objective, I'd say he simply took no interest in hanging around any longer than he had to. He had the time and opportunity to do so with Mary Kelly and yet appears to have still chosen not to.

It's also possible that even somebody as brutal as JTR didn't relish the idea of having sex with somebody he'd just done "that" to....

Cheers,
Adam.

[Roy Corduroy]

Since it is generally accepted that JTR killed in order to achieve a certain unusual way of getting sexual gratification

Hi, I don't necessarily agree with your premise. The Ripper could have been a syphilitic revenge killer.

Roy

[SaraCarter33]

Do you think maybe jack the ripper had more deeper psychological problems then just syphillic revenge?