Originally posted by Fisherman
View Post
John G:
First of all there is absolutely no forensic evidence that any of the Torso victims were even murdered...
That is not entirely true, since there were blows to the temple of one of the victims (Battersea 1873), blows that were thought to be the cause of death.
And as Dr Biggs, the forensic pathologist points out, the MO is "vastly different" from that of JtR: see Marriott, 2013. These are dismemberment cases, which according to Dr Biggs are not uncommon, the purpose usually being to conceal a homicide-something JtR was unconcerned about.
Yes. The purpose of dismemberment is normally to conceal a homicide and to facilitate transport of the victim without detection. But in the torso case, we need not speculate that the killer was anxious to hide what he had done. Instead, he spent a lot of time and effort to DISPLAY his work, taking immense risks as he did so. So the notion that he tried to conceal things is something we should not speculate about here. If anything, he tried to conceal the identity of the victims, but the concealment factor goes no further than that. This was seemingly a killer who sought attention. It was not the other way around. Therefore, the two series do not differ in this context - quite the opposite. Both series ensured that there was full attention, making the series very related in that respect.
And, as I've noted before, the Torso perpetrator used dump sites, whereas JtR didn't.
That would have been ruled by the circumstances. We must assume that the torso killer had a place to dismember his victims, and unless he wanted to be found out on account of the smell, he simply MUST dump his bodies. The Ripper could hardly carry his victimīs bodies with him. So the difference here lies not in what the intentions were when it came to the handling of the bodies, but instead in how the surrounding circumstances ruled the outcome.
He also operated in a different geographical area to JtR-only one of the victims was found in Whitechapel.
To be fair, we only know that he scattered the remains in large parts of London. For all we know, all of the victims could have been picked up on Pinchin Street. Not that I think they were, but it goes to show how we canīt speak in generalizing terms about an "area of operation" that very much differed from the Ripperīs when it comes to the torso killer. If anything, I find it interesting that a victim was deliberately placed in the heart of the Ripper territory.
Of course, it is also very likely that the Torso perpetrator had access to transport as well as secure accommodation to dismember the victims-on fact, I've speculated that he may have had access to a boat. JtR was not a commuter killer,so probably didn't have access to transport. I also doubt he had access to secure accommodation.
A slight distinction: The Ripper KILLINGS were reasonably not commuter killings - as for the killer, if he was identical with the torso killer, then he was probably a commuter killer too. These two matters are - two matters. If we are to say that the Ripper could not have committed commuter killings, we would be dead wrong. And looking at things practically, if the Ripper was also the torso killer, then he may have killed out in the streets for shock value and thrill value (something you readily accept on behalf of the torso man), and then he could have performed his torso murders in a bolthole somewhere. If so, why would he not scatter those remains all over London, in order to throw the police off his trail?
My belief is that the Torso Murderer, if indeed he was a murderer, was a thrill seeker. That's why he took substantial and unnecessary risks. Evidence also suggests that he had a macabre sense of humour, and was effectively taunting the police, perhaps mocking their failure to catch him.
So a twin soul versus the Ripper in many respects...?
The fact that mutilation occurred with the Torso victims is clearly incidental. I mean, how could you dismember a body without mutilating it? Conversely, the mutilations in the JtR cases were clearly fundamental to the killer's signature.
The abdominal area was cut open and organs were missing in a number of cases. It goes without saying that this was not something you needed to do in order to dismember a body. But it was nevertheless performed.
Should we speculate that this was not fundamental to the torso killers signature?
There are major differences inbetween the two series. That should make us speculate that they may have been by different hands.
But there are also major likenesses! Same town, same time, same type of victims, same theatralic ingredients, same shock value, same 100 per cent certainty that the deeds would not go unnoticed, same opening of abdomens (down to the exact method in one case), same loss of organs.
We should not say that the two must have been one and the same. That would be ludicruous. But this discussion plays out against a background where it has been a taboo to even breath the possibility. Anybody who has suggested a connection has been pooh-poohed over the years, and much discussion has been vociferously drenched by naysayers. I feel the discussion MUST be had, since there IS a real chance that the two killers were identical. And if they were, then the differences have a lot to say about the type of killer we would be dealing with. Meaning that there is a path of research open to us that we should absolutely not close down.
First of all there is absolutely no forensic evidence that any of the Torso victims were even murdered...
That is not entirely true, since there were blows to the temple of one of the victims (Battersea 1873), blows that were thought to be the cause of death.
And as Dr Biggs, the forensic pathologist points out, the MO is "vastly different" from that of JtR: see Marriott, 2013. These are dismemberment cases, which according to Dr Biggs are not uncommon, the purpose usually being to conceal a homicide-something JtR was unconcerned about.
Yes. The purpose of dismemberment is normally to conceal a homicide and to facilitate transport of the victim without detection. But in the torso case, we need not speculate that the killer was anxious to hide what he had done. Instead, he spent a lot of time and effort to DISPLAY his work, taking immense risks as he did so. So the notion that he tried to conceal things is something we should not speculate about here. If anything, he tried to conceal the identity of the victims, but the concealment factor goes no further than that. This was seemingly a killer who sought attention. It was not the other way around. Therefore, the two series do not differ in this context - quite the opposite. Both series ensured that there was full attention, making the series very related in that respect.
And, as I've noted before, the Torso perpetrator used dump sites, whereas JtR didn't.
That would have been ruled by the circumstances. We must assume that the torso killer had a place to dismember his victims, and unless he wanted to be found out on account of the smell, he simply MUST dump his bodies. The Ripper could hardly carry his victimīs bodies with him. So the difference here lies not in what the intentions were when it came to the handling of the bodies, but instead in how the surrounding circumstances ruled the outcome.
He also operated in a different geographical area to JtR-only one of the victims was found in Whitechapel.
To be fair, we only know that he scattered the remains in large parts of London. For all we know, all of the victims could have been picked up on Pinchin Street. Not that I think they were, but it goes to show how we canīt speak in generalizing terms about an "area of operation" that very much differed from the Ripperīs when it comes to the torso killer. If anything, I find it interesting that a victim was deliberately placed in the heart of the Ripper territory.
Of course, it is also very likely that the Torso perpetrator had access to transport as well as secure accommodation to dismember the victims-on fact, I've speculated that he may have had access to a boat. JtR was not a commuter killer,so probably didn't have access to transport. I also doubt he had access to secure accommodation.
A slight distinction: The Ripper KILLINGS were reasonably not commuter killings - as for the killer, if he was identical with the torso killer, then he was probably a commuter killer too. These two matters are - two matters. If we are to say that the Ripper could not have committed commuter killings, we would be dead wrong. And looking at things practically, if the Ripper was also the torso killer, then he may have killed out in the streets for shock value and thrill value (something you readily accept on behalf of the torso man), and then he could have performed his torso murders in a bolthole somewhere. If so, why would he not scatter those remains all over London, in order to throw the police off his trail?
My belief is that the Torso Murderer, if indeed he was a murderer, was a thrill seeker. That's why he took substantial and unnecessary risks. Evidence also suggests that he had a macabre sense of humour, and was effectively taunting the police, perhaps mocking their failure to catch him.
So a twin soul versus the Ripper in many respects...?
The fact that mutilation occurred with the Torso victims is clearly incidental. I mean, how could you dismember a body without mutilating it? Conversely, the mutilations in the JtR cases were clearly fundamental to the killer's signature.
The abdominal area was cut open and organs were missing in a number of cases. It goes without saying that this was not something you needed to do in order to dismember a body. But it was nevertheless performed.
Should we speculate that this was not fundamental to the torso killers signature?
There are major differences inbetween the two series. That should make us speculate that they may have been by different hands.
But there are also major likenesses! Same town, same time, same type of victims, same theatralic ingredients, same shock value, same 100 per cent certainty that the deeds would not go unnoticed, same opening of abdomens (down to the exact method in one case), same loss of organs.
We should not say that the two must have been one and the same. That would be ludicruous. But this discussion plays out against a background where it has been a taboo to even breath the possibility. Anybody who has suggested a connection has been pooh-poohed over the years, and much discussion has been vociferously drenched by naysayers. I feel the discussion MUST be had, since there IS a real chance that the two killers were identical. And if they were, then the differences have a lot to say about the type of killer we would be dealing with. Meaning that there is a path of research open to us that we should absolutely not close down.
Comment