Since it is generally accepted that JTR killed in order to achieve a certain unusual way of getting sexual gratification, the question I have is: why weren't any of the victims attributed to JTR shown as having any signs of having been sexually violated by him? if you read the facts about the case, you'll notice that the doctors did check the victims for signs of any recent sexual activity (which is referred to in the notes as "connection") or any traces of semen found on the bodies, and in both cases, neither were present. However, it is difficult to say in Kelly's case since the murder took place in a private dwelling and the lower half of her torso and genital area was mutilated beyond recognition. That being said, as far as the other victims are concerned, why do you think Jack did not rape his victims? Among the popular reasons are:
1. Setting Circumstances. Since most of the killings took place out in the open, Jack didn't have the time or place to commit such an act. he only had time to fulfill his need to murder and, afterwards, took a trophy with him which he probably used to self-gratify with later on when "re-living" the murder in the privacy of his dwelling.
2. Physically incapable- Jack was impotent. Possibly due to severe psychological trauma suffered by abuse as a child, Jack was incapable of getting an erection though normal, sexual stimulation. The only way he could accomplish this was by killing.
3. Genital deformity- I know this is gonna remind people of the Cornwall/Sickert theory, but I think it should be mentioned. Jack may have been either born with a debilitating defect or suffered severe physical damage from an accident or attack etc. that resulted in his male reproductive organs to either be damaged or misshapen. On the TV show "Nip/Tuck" the serial killer known as The Carver attacks people because, among other reasons, he was born as a eunuch due to genetic damage when he was conceived.
4. Personal safety- Since many prostitutes at that time were afflicted with veneral diseases, Jack did not rape in order to not risk getting infected.
__________________ I won't make any deals. I've resigned. I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed,de-briefed, or numbered!
Last edited by JTRSickert : 06-07-2010 at 03:53 PM.
Hello JTR. That's true enough. I hadn't thought of that.
Seriously, in each of the C5, as you point out, the doctors were thinking in terms of sex. The police, at least initially, thought in terms of a lunatic. It is enlightening to read the memoranda of the various "top cops" and see them doing precisely what we are doing--theorising.
It is interesting to note though that rape is very rarely really anything to do with sex. It is a contol issue in most cases and really Jack had control of these women from the start. The Yorkshire Ripper only had sex with one of his victims although he did masturbate at the site of the murders. The one he did rape it is suggested this is because they could not get away from her at that time. An act of frustration maybe?
What interests me is how they could tell? We know that Mary Kelly lived as a prositiute, we know that Mary Ann Nichols had 'earned' her doss money but had drunk it away. Catherine Eddowes had to have got the money to get drunk from somewhere! In all these cases it would not have been unreasonable to find some evidence of this but all are listed as not having had 'recent connection'.
We must also remember that many people believe that men who commit crimes like this are often unable to engage in normal sexual realtions.
In order to know virtue, we must first aquaint ourselves with vice!
I think that his attacking the sex organs is evidence that deep down inside he associated sex with violence or abuse...hence the destruction of those organs. If he wanted to have sex with them he could've just paid for it.