Kind of a morbid question, but it's something that I've been wondering about for a bit, and there are some remarkably knowledgable people on this board. I'm wondering whether mutilation murders where the mutilation was presumably sexual in intent have increased as a percentage of murders over time? I'm speaking not of cases such as, for example, the Brighton Trunk Murders, where the purpose of cutting up the victim was apparently just to aid in disposal, but of cases like the Ripper where the desire to mutilate is one of the chief apparent motives for the crime.
My own belief is that this is a much more common sort of crime than it used to be, but I'd really like actual statistics if anyone can point me toward them.
My own belief is that this is a much more common sort of crime than it used to be, but I'd really like actual statistics if anyone can point me toward them.
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