I was taught the "Red hot poker" theory, and never actually questioned it, it seemed nicely medieval England in its "gory glory" so to speak.
But ive recently been listening to a historical podcast which not only casts doubt on the method of his death, but whether he actually died at all in 1327.
So am in the process of genning up on a subject I though was cut and dried .
All very interesting
Anyone else have an interest?
But ive recently been listening to a historical podcast which not only casts doubt on the method of his death, but whether he actually died at all in 1327.
So am in the process of genning up on a subject I though was cut and dried .
All very interesting
Anyone else have an interest?
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