At the heart of of any book about Richard III lies the events of spring /summer of 1483-was he a victim of circumstances or was he pulling the strings backstage?
I have always been pro Richard and firmly believed in his innocence.That is,until recently.
what has awoken my suspicions is the executions of Rivers ,Grey and Vaughan and the man who carried it out-the earl of Northumberland.
Overseeing their execution he closely linked himself with Richard,and also alienating the supposedly new king Edward V by killing his uncle and half brother.so the question is,how can he believed to avoid retaliation from Edward and his woodville kin once the boy was crowned?
At this point richard was still maintaining his protectorate,not yet having made his bid for the throne.The answer seems to be that richard must have filled him in on plans to make himself king ant thereby letting Northumberland of the hook regarding any questions of guilt in the matter.
If Percy at this point had inside knowledge,he must have known at a very early stage thus making it feasible that they were all in on a preconceived plan.This changes the scene a little doesnt it?
As mentioned earlier i have always been a ricardian and this isnt something i
throw out there for the hell of it(As someone indeed seems to be doing here at times)but rather to have a discussion about it-And that someone proves me wrong.Nothing would please me more............
So,Anyone?
I have always been pro Richard and firmly believed in his innocence.That is,until recently.
what has awoken my suspicions is the executions of Rivers ,Grey and Vaughan and the man who carried it out-the earl of Northumberland.
Overseeing their execution he closely linked himself with Richard,and also alienating the supposedly new king Edward V by killing his uncle and half brother.so the question is,how can he believed to avoid retaliation from Edward and his woodville kin once the boy was crowned?
At this point richard was still maintaining his protectorate,not yet having made his bid for the throne.The answer seems to be that richard must have filled him in on plans to make himself king ant thereby letting Northumberland of the hook regarding any questions of guilt in the matter.
If Percy at this point had inside knowledge,he must have known at a very early stage thus making it feasible that they were all in on a preconceived plan.This changes the scene a little doesnt it?
As mentioned earlier i have always been a ricardian and this isnt something i
throw out there for the hell of it(As someone indeed seems to be doing here at times)but rather to have a discussion about it-And that someone proves me wrong.Nothing would please me more............
So,Anyone?
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