Originally posted by NotBlamedForNothing
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‘Screaming but not very loudly’ makes little sense of course so what’s the likeliest explanation given that it came from a non-English speaker communicating through an interpreter? Could there have been some error where ‘not very loudly’ should have meant ‘very loudly?’ Wouldn’t we then have expected Abberline to have asked for clarification for any anomaly? Or is the simpler, more reasonable and far more likely explanation that ‘screamed’ was the poorly chosen word but the important part was the Schwartz was clearly stressing that whatever noise she made, it wasn’t very loud. So it’s clearly unsurprising that no one heard her.
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