Why do we have to assume that BS man was a Gentile? Why couldn’t one Jew insult another by calling him Lipski? Lipski was a murderer after all and his religion wasn’t a factor in his crime. I don’t see this as proof that BS man was a Gentile. It’s a weak way of trying to give the impression that the killer was a non-Jew. A much simpler and more reliable method would have been first, procure a witness that could actually speak English (which shouldn’t have been difficult) and then get him to state that BS man spoke with an accent...Scottish, Irish or Welsh would have done the trick but then again conspirators never choose the easy way do they.
![Shakehead](https://forum.casebook.org/core/images/smilies/clipart/shakehead.gif)
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