Originally posted by Fisherman
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So you factor in ten minutes from the calling up to the examination.
Bearing in mind the doctor's statement of 31 August that he was called to Bucks Row at about 3:55 (a statement that you continually ignore), if we take 3.55 as the starting point, is it not entirely reasonable using your own estimate of ten minutes to get dressed and walk to Bucks Row to say that he was there at 4:05?
Why is this "less likely" than 4:10?
Surely, given the statement of 31 August, it is more likely isn't it?
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