Originally posted by robhouse
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The thing is, I am so used to see that special statement stand on its own, finishing most coroner reports where the crime has been suspected of being of sexual character. That is how it's done also in Swedish crime reports from this time.
What I still don't get is how you could treat this as some sort of evbidence of that the Ripper may be involved. As I said before - and a point which you choose to avoid - if there WAS a wound to the lower part of the body, why wouldn't there be if she already displayed wounds all over the torso and the neck? What would be so special about yet another wound, even though it may have been placed in the lower region?
Surely to establish that she may have had a wound in the genital area is not enough in order to connect it with the Ripper.
And once again - Killeen clearly states that the large wound was penetrating the chest bone and most likely was the cause of death. hence, this wound was not placed in the lower region. Since Killeen specifically singles out the large wound as the one in the chest area, then one can reasonably assume that the one in the genital area - if there was such a wound in the first place - was just as small and possibly a stab similar to the 38 small ones. In other words, just one of many stab wounds.
All the best
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