Originally posted by The Baron
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I remain on the fence regarding MacKenzie, but I lean toward a copycat. I find it curious that her murder is much more similar to the prototypical Ripper murder than Stride, yet police at the time accepted Stride and had mixed opinions on MacKenzie. They must have had a reason, and to me it is not just the date. It is the difference in the severity of the mutilations between the MacKenzie murder (where there was an opportunity for mutilation unlike Stride) and the prototypical Ripper murders. I don't accept the "Ripper was sick and weak" explanation. The perpetrator was healthy enough to murder Alice with a knife, which requires some physicality. He thus would be healthy enough to inflict post-mortem mutilations, which seemingly require less strength than the actual murder. I suppose this is arguable. I have never murdered nor mutilated anyone.
Now, a downgrade in knife might explain things, which is why I remain on the fence. But why would the Ripper lose his knife?
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