MJK pregnancy

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  • MayBea
    replied
    You are correct, Debra, about the incorrect conclusion that Rose Mylett had never given birth. The conclusion, and/or the evidence for the conclusion, belonged to Dr. Brownfield and not Dr. Bond.

    An old thread had Bond making the conclusion but, in actuality, he only did a re-examination for cause of death on behalf of Anderson.

    However, I was just messaging with someone on this forum who stated adamantly that Mary Kelly was never pregnant because Bond would have said it.

    Either way, you've made the case for me. Kelly could have given birth just as Rose did.

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  • Debra A
    replied
    Originally posted by MayBea View Post
    For those who think the non-reporting of pregnancy by Bond is proof of Gravida 0, meaning Mary never gave birth, may you take notice that his actual reporting of evidence of Gravida 0 for Rose Mylett was incorrect.



    http://www.casebook.org/victims/mylett.html
    I don't think these two situations compare, Maybea. Surely the suggestion here has been that it should be assumed Kelly was not pregnant at the time of her death because there was no observation by Bond that the uterus was gravid. In reality there is no comment from Bond at all on the condition of the uterus, just the location.

    Catherine Mylett had two children in fact; Florence Beatrice and Henry. Dr Brownfield was mistaken in his conclusions she had never given birth but it was difficult to determine such a thing in those days and generally things like stretch marks and evidence of breastfeeding were looked for as a guide. I have found several medical texts advising doctors to not give a statement in the negative on previous pregnancy unless they were absolutely certain (the victim was a virgin). That was more Brownfield's failing in the Mylett case-being adamant Catherine had never given birth.
    Last edited by Debra A; 11-19-2014, 09:31 AM.

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  • MayBea
    replied
    For those who think the non-reporting of pregnancy by Bond is proof of Gravida 0, meaning Mary never gave birth, may you take notice that his actual reporting of evidence of Gravida 0 for Rose Mylett was incorrect.

    Dr. Bond received Anderson's request and examined the body of Rose Mylett... the medical report revealed evidence purporting that Mylett had never given birth, this time contradicting the statement made by her mother (who said Rose Mylett gave birth to a son in 1881).

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  • MayBea
    replied
    It may have been a misquote from the Jack the Ripper A to Z, 1991, with the negative place in the wrong place and attributed to Bond.

    ...the uterus was neither stolen nor APPARENTLY gravid.

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  • Bridewell
    replied
    I found this on another website.



    The whole "not gravid" thing has been around for a while obviously, but what was the original source? (It wasn't me!)

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  • MayBea
    replied
    I found the Jeff Leahy post about Mary Kelly's alleged pregancy. He quotes the autopsy report as saying Mary had "uterus underhead".



    I thought that "underhead" was another technical term until I realized her uterus was found under her head.

    Perhaps the misunderstanding came because the words ran together.

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  • Bridewell
    replied
    I've been asked where Dr Bond says that MJK was "not apparently gravid" and am somewhat embarrassed to have to say that I can't find it! Mea culpa if I am in error on this. My recollection is that, about 3 years ago, I speculated that MJK might have been pregnant and the phrase "not apparently gravid" was quoted back at me. The archives (Casebook) suggest that Jeff Leahy raised this issue in January 2004 when he posted this:-

    "I spoke to Paul Begg today who confirms that he is unsure where the reference to Kelly being Gravid comes from in A to Z." (my italics).

    I apologise if I have misled on this. If anyone can throw any light on the resultant confusion I would greatly appreciate it - especially if it removes some of the egg from my face.

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  • MayBea
    replied
    "Today, I believe the term gravidity can be used to specify the number of children a woman has had." Quote mine.

    Correction: the term Gravida refers to the number of pregnancies a woman's had. Gravida plus the number.

    The freedictionary gives a date of around 1925 for the term but 1880 for the use of para as in primipara or multipara.

    Definition, Synonyms, Translations of gravida by The Free Dictionary


    The gist of the thread is really about why he didn't take the uterus away with him. But, now that the technical terms are clear, I think we can agree that the dead woman was not pregnant at the time she was killed.

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  • MayBea
    replied
    Okay, Bridewell,

    I'll agree that, by "uterus not gravid" Bond meant "not pregnant".

    I didn't know that it really means burdened by child, and only in its secondary definition can it refer to the condition of the lining during or after pregnancy.

    But that doesn't negate the small possiblity that he meant the uterus did not show signs of gravidity or the conditions of pregnancy, and it be a very early pregnancy he could be missing, or didn't want to make public out of discretion.

    Today, I believe the term gravidity can be used to specify the number of children a woman has had. I think this would be more relevant in Mary's case but I don't believe that was the case in 1888.

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  • Bridewell
    replied
    Originally posted by Bridewell View Post
    It says very specifically "Not Gravid".
    So either Bond didn't know what he was talking about (unlikely) or Mary Kelly was not pregnant.

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  • Bridewell
    replied
    It has been stated that Dr Bond's report showed that Mary Jane was not pregnant but in fact it doesn't say, one way or another.
    It says very specifically "Not Gravid".

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  • MayBea
    replied
    There's a lot of over-reaction and misinformation when it comes to the subject of Mary Kelly having a child. Critics keep resorting to the "so-and-so would have mentioned it" argument.

    It doesn't make them wrong. It's just a case of trying hard to make your case.

    Originally posted by Spotty View Post
    I've often wondered, assuming that various stories about Mary being pregnant are true (do we have confirmation of this?), if the enlarged state of the uterus could have affected Jack in some way? ... and perhaps caused him to take the heart instead? Long shot I know
    I think this is a sensible theory. Any possible divergence from the pattern must be explained.

    My own explanation, expressed on another thread, was that he didn't take the uterus from the room because she'd born him a child, and that is what "affected him. Not impossible.

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  • Rosella
    replied
    The heart could have been burned in the grate at Miller's Court, for all we know. It has been stated that Dr Bond's report showed that Mary Jane was not pregnant but in fact it doesn't say, one way or another.

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  • Rosella
    replied
    The heart could have been burned in the grate at Miller's Court, for all we know. It has been said that Dr Bond's report showed that Mary Jane was not pregnant but in fact it doesn't say, one way or another.

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  • GUT
    replied
    And I think that the Drs may have noticed at the postmortem, and it is open to debate if the heart was taken from Miller's Court.

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