This may or may not have been brought up before, but I've always wondered about the reasoning behind the canonical 5.
Jack 'ripped' his victims, but if you believe the night of the 'double event', he didn't; Liz Stride only had her throat cut. So why is she considered a canonical Ripper victim? I find it somewhat tenuous that people think it was Jack's handiwork - after all, he was the ONLY killer in the East End, wasn't he?!
Then, he changed his MO, set up nicely indoors, and spent hours with Mary Kelly. But - and it is a credible arguement - if we assume that Joseph Barnett killed MJK, surely, that leaves only 3?
So why 5?
Jack 'ripped' his victims, but if you believe the night of the 'double event', he didn't; Liz Stride only had her throat cut. So why is she considered a canonical Ripper victim? I find it somewhat tenuous that people think it was Jack's handiwork - after all, he was the ONLY killer in the East End, wasn't he?!
Then, he changed his MO, set up nicely indoors, and spent hours with Mary Kelly. But - and it is a credible arguement - if we assume that Joseph Barnett killed MJK, surely, that leaves only 3?
So why 5?
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