Originally posted by Herlock Sholmes
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If the killer took a uterus from Chapman and his motive was just organ harvesting why did he take an identical organ from Eddowes? having one already
Why is it that there were two different methods used to remove the uterus in both cases surely if it were the same killer surely he would have used the same method in both cases? and it is significant that the two differnet methods were seen at two differnet mortuaries
Doe that not indicate two differnet persons were responsible?
On that topic how can you explain that the two differnet methods of extraction were identified at the two different mortuaries does that not indicate that two differnet people were responsible for those removals?
Why would a surgeon want to commit murder to harvest organs when as a surgeon he could readily acquire as many organs as he wanted under the terms of the anatomy act?
Do you accept that there was an illicit trade in bodies and body parts in 1888? and in particular female body parts, and in particular the female reproductive system?
I wait in anticipation for your replies
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