Originally posted by Monty
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I can hear the police chorus now, "I wish I had a shilling for everytime I heard that!".
One common critique has been that Packer was eventually influenced by the publication of the description by PC Smith.
Yet, Packer's 'description' bares no resemblance to that given by Smith. So how do we justify that argument?
On the other hand it is easy to counter the "Smith" argument by suggesting that Smith must have been Packer's "witness", by that I mean Packer must have closed up his shop at 12:30 not 11:30, because PC Smith saw this couple standing where Packer placed them at approx. 12:35, so now we know the correct time.
The immediate response would be, "but Packer's "man" looks nothing like Smiths "man".
Ah!, I rest my case.
How many people do you think told the police they saw/heard nothing?
Isn't this a common theme throughout all the murders?
The difference with Packer is "someone" (two tecs) went back to him and presumably enticed him to talk. Now, whether that involves some conspiracy or not, who can tell. Personally I think not.
The press did keep repeating Packer's description for weeks after.
We do have Packer's press statement, but not Packer's police statement with which to judge him.
On balance, I would not say Packer was untruthful, maybe somewhat unreliable and definitely today, unpopular.
If anything, Packer's "man" is the same as the description given by Ada Wilson some 6 months previous. Packer just might have seen "Pipeman", and the consensus is that he did exist, but his description was not published before the 4th, that I can tell.
Yes, I cut Packer a little more slack than most others do.
Regards, Jon S.
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