Originally posted by Fisherman
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we have no psychylogical or psychiatric tests stating that Jack the Ripper was a "psychopath".
And we cannot give a person who is long since dead a diagnosis.
Do you really mean that you build your theory about Lechmeres behaviour in the past on an hypothesis about the killer having a psychatric diagnosis - without Lechmere having been tested for and given that diagnosis?
And is this non existing diagnosis the starting point of your whole theory of Lechmere being the killer?
Because then you have based the whole theory on bias and that will lead you to the wrong conclusions.
Regards Pierre
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