discussion of Aaron Kosminski's psychological profile

[Marlowe]

Hi Rob,

Generally speaking, if one is capable of excessive masturbation, it means that one's dopamine levels are probably higher than normal. When dopamine is up, prolactin is down, making it possible to achieve multiple orgasms! If your dopamine levels are super high, you could easily become paranoid or psychotic. This can also cause the person to take excessive risks or become easily agitated or aggressive. Libido is frequently way higher than normal, as well. (trust me...this is true ;-))


As to Aaron, I assume, based on what little we know about him, that his masturbation frequency was not normal.

What I would like to know, Rob, if you wouldn't mind my asking, is:

Did Aaron go about the street picking up "bread"?

And did he die of gangrene?

Thanks,

Marlowe

[Abby Normal]

[QUOTE=jason_c;155736]He seems to have looked and acted fairly normally in 1889.[/QUOT

Hi Jason
Thanks for the response.
But my original question about his appearance, physically and behaviorily, in the fall of 1988 during the murders is what I think is most important.

I think this is crucial. And I keep asking because:

Basically, How could someone with severe mental illness a few years after the murders that include eating out of garbage, guided by voices, not being capable of work, etc, etc and to the point of being incarcerated in an asylum have been "normal" in appearance and behaviour enough to convince/manipulate/make feel at ease street smart prostitutes into accompanying him into dark secluded areas for the pretense of sex at the height of the whitechapel murders when certainly any small indicator of a potential punter being strange or different would have sent said prostitutes screaming in his opposite direction?

[corey123]

Hello Rob,

Yes, the DSM is very rigid, it has to be, it is the American legal manual to diagnose patients with every disorder immaginable. Also, the DSM-IV-TR(keep in mind TR stands for 'text revision' so this was a revised version of the fourth DSM, so the fourth edition was published some time in the 90's I believe, or lait 80's) was published in 2004(from memory, I believe) and I believe the next copy, which will update the previous, is due for 2013.

However, they are accurate. As defined by the American association of Psychiatry.

Here is the DSM-IV-TR definition of Schizophrenia.

A. Characteristic symptoms: Two (or more) of the following, each for a significant portion of time during a 1-month period must be present in said patient.
Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganized speech (e.g., frequent derailment or incoherence)
Grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior
Negative symptoms, i.e., affective flattening, alogia, or avolition.

B. Social/ Occupational dysfunction.

C. Duration: continuous signs of the disturbance persist for at least six months. This six month period must include at least one month of symptoms that meat criterion A. May include periods of prodromal or residual symptoms.

D. Schizoaffective and mood disorder exclusion.

E. Substance/general medical condition exclusion

F. Relationship to a pervasive developmental disorder

Found in Axis one, Clincal disorders.

Also, I know you don't want me too but I believe it may benefit the thread.

To all whom may be interested,

The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia' mainly states that the negative symptoms (flattening effect, alogia, avolition), and some of the cognitive symptoms (attention, working memory, and executive functions) might be explained by an alteration of the functional activity in the prefrontal cortex. These symptoms are related to the dopaminergic transmission at the D₁ receptors . In conclusion, hyperactive subcortical mesolimbic dopamine projections causes hyperstimulation of D₂ thus sparking the positive symptoms, and hypoactive mesocortical dopamine projections to the prefrontal cortex result in hypostimulation of D₁, inducing the negative and cognitive symptoms.

Dopamine is an endogenious ligand(to bind from within)catecholamine neurotransmitter. It takes electrical impulses from the axon terminal past the synapse to the dendrite receptors. There are two seperate dopamine families. D₁-like families and D₂-like families.D₁ -like have to do with D₁ and D₅. These receptors increase the productivity of the second messenger cyclic andenosin monophosphate, also known as cAMP. The D₂-like includesD₂D₃ , and D₄, and does the opposite.

A chemical neuron is composed of three parts, the axon, which sends the electrical impulses across the synaptic cleft to the dentrodic receptors. Imagine(forgive my horrible analogies) two shower heads, one is the axon terminal, and the other, the dendrite, the empty space in between is the synaptic cleft, a liquid of great(excessive) quantity shoots from the axon to little cylinder shaped receptors on the dendrite. These number too few and the excess intake of dopamine in the D₂(postive symtpoms, mesolimbic, Prefrountal cortex) and D₁(negative & cognitive symptoms, mesocortical, neocortex) short circuts the nerve ending and distorts the impulse. Of course there are five dopamine receptors but D₁ and D₂ have only a real signifigance in this disorder. D₃ has been seen to increase in frequency I think in the frountal lobes, but it doesn't induce any great symptoms.

Confusing, yes, interesting, maybe

[robhouse]

Hi Corey,

I think that the dopamine theory would be a bit over my head. Having said that, yes, please feel free to post it anyway!

I have been looking for a link to an article I used to have regarding the exact definitions of various forms of schizophrenia. Specifically, the article (which was rather recent) basically argued that the DSM-IV categories were not very accurate, as they were too rigidly defined, and that various symptoms could be measured distinctly in terms of severity, in a multi-dimensional way. Something along the lines of schizophrenia being characterized by a cluster of symptoms... I think this was basically (among other things) a critique of the newly created classification of schizo-affective disorder.

My mind is drawing a bit of a blank right now. I believe this is referred to as schizotypal spectrum theory.

RH

[corey123]

Hello Rob,

I apologize. Interesting case is Aaron Kosminski. I have been told numberous times that it is worthles to pursue the psychological interests in this case but when opertunities do arise, such as this and with Jacob Isenschmid, why not take full advantage of it?

Interesting suspect.

If you would like, I can post a break down of what the 'dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia' details? It relates greatly in this case. Only if you want me too. It is very confusing and I wouldn't want t torture innocents for it if there would be no use.

[robhouse]

Hi Corey,

I am aware of the distinction, but Sutcliffe claimed to have heard a voice that commanded him to kill prostitutes. That said, I think he was probably lying, but that is another matter...

RH

[corey123]

Hello Rob,

Less so, speaking for my age. An acute interest better describes it.

[robhouse]

Hello Marlowe,

There is nothing in the file that states Kozminski practiced "compulsive masturbation." The file says "practises self-abuse" and later gives "self abuse" as the cause of his disorder. So I am not sure exactly what you are suggesting. However, I am very interested in the input of both you and Corey since you both seem very knowledgeable in the field.

Rob H

[corey123]

Hello Marlowe,

Interesting. I have read a bit of Kraft Ebbing, but not much compared to others.

Rob,

I would believe that some confuse 'hallucinations'(auditory or visual) and 'delusions' as you describe with Sutcliff.

Also, just for reference, as outlined by the DSM-IV-TR

1. Paranoid Type
A type of Schizophrenia in which the following criteria are met:
Preoccupation with one or more delusions or frequent auditory hallucinations.
None of the following is prominent: disorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior, or flat or inappropriate affect.

2. Catatonic Type
A type of Schizophrenia in which the clinical picture is dominated by at least two of the following:
motoric immobility as evidenced by catalepsy (including waxy flexibility) or stupor
excessive motor activity (that is apparently purposeless and not influenced by external stimuli)
extreme negativism (an apparently motiveless resistance to all instructions or maintenance of a rigid posture against attempts to be moved) or mutism
peculiarities of voluntary movement as evidenced by posturing (voluntary assumption of inappropriate or bizarre postures),
stereotyped movements, prominent mannerisms, or prominent grimacing
echolalia or echopraxia

3. Disorganized Type
A type of Schizophrenia in which the following criteria are met:
All of the following are prominent:
disorganized speech
disorganized behavior
flat or inappropriate affect
The criteria are not met for Catatonic Type.

4. Undifferentiated Type
A type of Schizophrenia in which symptoms that meet Criterion A are present, but the criteria are not met for the Paranoid, Disorganized, or Catatonic Type.

5. Residual Type
A type of Schizophrenia in which the following criteria are met:
Absence of prominent delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior.
There is continuing evidence of the disturbance, as indicated by the presence of negative symptoms or two or more symptoms listed in Criterion A for Schizophrenia, present in an attenuated form (e.g., odd beliefs, unusual perceptual experiences).

[Marlowe]

Corey,

Dopamine agonists can help to shorten the refractory period. Fact: most men are incapable of compulsive masturbation...ahem, most :-)

[robhouse]

Just a couple points of clarification.

Kozminski was classified as an insane person, specifically a "person of unsound mind," which was one of three categories of insane people as defined in the Asylums Act of 1845. As defined by the law, a "person of unsound mind" was a “person who by reason of a morbid condition of intellect is incapable of managing himself and his affairs.” The other two categories were "lunatic," which was defined as a person “who, though previously ‘sane’, suffered from a temporary or permanent impairment of mental ability,” and "imbecile," defined as a person who was non compos mentis (not of sound mind) from birth, and incurable (i.e a person with mental retardation or a mental disability.) It is important to reiterate, as I have done many times, that Kozminski was not an imbecile as has been repeated in most books. It is also important to note that the line between a "person of unsound mind" and a "lunatic" was not very clearly defined, and the exact reason one label was used in favor of the other is somewhat unclear.

Kozminski's initial diagnosis at Colney Hatch was "mania" which incidentally corresponds with what Anderson wrote when he said, "It is impossible to believe they were acts of a sane man—they were those of a maniac revelling in blood." And also, "the inhabitants of the metropolis generally were just as secure during the weeks the fiend was on the prowl as they were before the mania seized him, or after he had been safely caged in an asylum."

It would be dangerous to equate this with the modern definition of "mania" however, since in Victorian times, the primary differentiator between mania and dementia, for example, was that if a patient were “overactive” or exciteable, a diagnosis of mania would be applied, even if the patient had symptoms of insanity or schizophrenia. Aaron's diagnosis was later changed to "dementia" which corresponds to the modern definition of schizophrenia, generally speaking.

That said, the record also clearly states that Aaron was both melancholic and that he exhibited chronic mania. This may suggest that he had affective (mood) symptoms in addition to his likely primary diagnosis of schizophrenia. As noted, there is no real way to diagnose Kozminski's condition with 100% accuracy, and the suggestion that he was a paranoid schizophrenic is somewhat within the realm of conjecture. However, it may be inferred from reading his file that he was indeed paranoid. From what I have read, paranoid schizophrenics are often more able to hide the symptoms of their insanity, and they tend to be more introverted, and more able to function on a day-to-day basis. Other studies have argued that paranoid schizophrenia is a less severe manifestation of the disorder than disorganized schizophrenia, which is more or less characterized by total incoherence. However, at times Aaron was described as being incoherent, so again it is difficult to be very accurate here.

It is also possible that Kozminski had co-morbid psychopathic characteristics... if we are to believe Macnaghten for example, who wrote that Kozminski "had a great hatred of women, specially of the prostitute class, & had strong homicidal tendencies". Recent studies have shown that there is an increased likelihood of violence among schizophrenics if psychopathic characteristics are also present. In other words, while violent tendencies among schizophrenics are not common (broadly speaking), there is a subset of schizophrenics with co-morbid psychopathic traits who are more likely commit premeditated violent acts. Also, it may be argued that the psychopathy is the underlying motivation behind such behavior, as opposed to factors related specifically to schizophrenia... command hallucinations for example.

In the trial of Peter Sutcliffe for example, the prosecution set out to display that Sutcliffe had sadistic motivations for his crimes, and that he recieved sexual gratification from his crimes. In short, he masturbated at the crime scenes. By proving this, the prosecution undermined the insanity defense (which was the main focus of the trial.) Sutcliffe claimed that he was driven to rid the earth of prostitutes as commanded by God... in other words, the defense was that he was driven by command hallucinations. Sutcliffe may very well have been lying about his schizophrenia... indeed he probably was, despite the fact that I believe at least two doctors diagnosed him as being schizophrenic. The point I am trying to make is that even if he was truly insane, it is also entirely possible that he was at least in part driven by sadistic psychopathic urges. So this tactic is employed by prosecutors, who try to undermine the insanity defense by proving that a defendant may have had psychopathic urges and desires to inflict harm or receive gratification from committing murder. The case of Andrew Goldstein is a good example of such a situation. The prosecution set out to show that Goldstein had a general aversion to women, and that he exhibited "sexually inappropriate" behavior around them. The purpose of this was to again undermine the insanity defense... in truth, Goldstein probably did have a general anger toward women, and he was quite probably a psychopath... but he was also clearly psychotic, which is something the prosecution glossed over.

RH

[corey123]

Hello Marlowe,

I suppose not. Forgive me as I have studied dopamine and its causes towards cronic illness, and I am rather ignorant in its part in psychopathia sexualis. However, am I correct in stating that these levels would only endure whilst the 'climax' has yet to be reached? Then to resume their normal level?

[Marlowe]

Corey,

Complusive masturbation is only possible when dopamine is high and prolactin is low. Are you in disagreement?

[corey123]

Hello Marlowe,

I see we agree that dopamine(agonist) had a play in this?

Odd that you would assert that it may be related to hypersexuality. I could see that as in hyposexuality, dopaminergic depletion could be found, as in depression. However, this is unlikely. However, the LSD like hallucinations are not hallucinations, but delusions, caused again by excess activate of D2 receptors in the mesocortal area of the PFC. Yes, certain drugs, mainly amphetamines, in turn replace the neurotransmitter dopamine and release excess amounts of the chemical, causing a temporary 'high' remenescent of the posative symptoms of many disorders. Depression is a common negative symptoms of Schizophrenia,(e.i. flattening effect) caused by the excess activation of the D1 receptors. Weight loss and excessive thrist are irrelevant, but possibly telling, though most likely not.

I agree, it is possible, but only such.

[Marlowe]

Hello Pontius,

*Complusive masturbation=low prolactin, high dopamine (dopamine agonist)
*LSD-like hallucinations (knowing the destiny of ALL mankind)
*Gangrene of the leg=vasoconstriction
*Weight loss
*Excessive thirst
*Depression

There are other reasons, as well. For example:

Did he go about the street picking up bread?