Originally posted by Ben
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Have you done a comparison between known serial killers and the rest of the population, on a percentage basis, to see if it is accurate to say that a working class man is actually any more likely than any other 'type' to commit serial murder? How do you know that if x% of men in the general population are working class (I presume the vast majority), there will not be the same x% of serial killers that are working class - in which case it would simply be a matter of numbers dictating the likelihood of the ripper being working class, and nothing to do with class itself?
Can I presume you have nothing against the basic idea of a higher class killer, and can acknowledge that it must be equally possible, physically and biologically, on a one-to-one basis, but you just think it is statistically far less likely because higher class men make up a far tinier proportion of the population as a whole? You don't think there is anything about a working class man that makes him more likely to offend repeatedly than a higher class man - do you?
Love,
Caz
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