Originally posted by perrymason
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I do suspect that one man murdered and mutilated at least four women in 1888, but I also suspect that what he craved and why would be impossible for anyone (even perhaps the killer himself) to know, much less prove. I only feel he was familiar and comfortable with the area; I cannot tell from the victims or murder locations what manner of man killed them, or how far the killer came to do so, but I suspect he would not have got Kate alone in the darkness of Mitre Square without showing her the entrance money and putting on a class “trust me” act first. Boy would I like to have followed that couple from the main road and listened in. She may have needed a drink but she wasn’t tired of living when she left the cop shop.
I have no doubt that the same man was easily capable of killing Liz first, but that’s not the same as having no doubt that he did, or doubting that anyone else was capable. My beef is with groundless arguments for another unknown man being more capable of the swiftly efficient job that left Liz dead and her killer free to kill again or not, as the case may be.
I neither accept nor reject the ‘canon’. I don’t think the evidence can ever provide a definitive set of yes/no ‘ripper’ victims. It’s hard enough if someone confesses to a series of murders to confirm they have included every one or are not claiming more than they committed. But when there is every reason to believe that one man was responsible for at least two of a string of unsolved murders with no obvious motive, I simply don’t follow the logic of introducing a second man without strong evidence against a known individual for one of the other murders, or strong evidence that the first man wasn’t capable of it.
Using such limited examples of the first man’s known homicidal behaviour, and no examples at all of the second man’s, to put the latter in the frame for a particular murder and clear the former, strikes me as no better than trying to guess either man’s motives - or knit fog.
For the life of me I can’t see the point of trying too hard to eliminate a known homicidal maniac from an unsolved murder, especially when it involves ignoring or explaining away many similarities and flushing an entire scene full of potential clues down the drain in the process. If there is no hard evidence for taking the ripper from the scene, why is even the best argument for replacing him with another unknown killer worth bothering with? Where does it get us in the long run?
I think one of the strangest arguments is to say that because we know the area and period in question boasted an unusually high number of active lady killers, this somehow entitles us to add to the number of these rare birds, when perhaps we should be saying enough is enough until we know why it already had more than its fair share.
Originally posted by perrymason
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Originally posted by perrymason
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Originally posted by perrymason
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I just don’t get the reference to ‘anger’. What is there to be angry about in an internet conversation about an old murder mystery?
One last thing to consider: Mary was attacked by someone who must have given her little or no warning that he was the kind of nasty, volatile creature who could flip into violent murder mode and slaughter a woman in her own bed; a man who gave nobody around him a hint of any such character, either before or after he committed that crime. In short, he was a man who appeared normal and non-violent to everyone who knew him until the moment he flipped with Mary, but managed to remain organised enough to make her look like the other chap’s work before flipping back to normal and getting on with his life. Does this really sound so much more like a domestic killer than the same man who took Polly, Annie and Kate by surprise? He may as well have been a stranger to Mary too, since she couldn’t have really known him if she had no clue what he had in store for her.
I know that not all domestic killers have obvious violent or abusive tendencies, but I suspect the majority do and that they get caught as a result. I also know that whole families can be taken completely by surprise and wiped out by men who showed no outward signs of the trouble brewing within. In such cases it is common for the man to break down and give himself up or take his own life. He stands almost no chance of reverting to normal afterwards.
So what are the chances of the man who wanted rid of Mary having this much in common with the man who killed the others?
Sorry about the huge post! Happy Weekend!!
Love,
Caz
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