[QUOTE=Fisherman;383230]
Hi Fisherman,
Absence of X (in this case damage) is not historical evidence of presence of intent.
Let me give you some examples from the cases:
The killer of Polly Nichols did not do any damage to the eyelids of the victim. Does this mean that his intention was to not damage the eyelids and that he had a motive for not doing so?
The killer of Annie Chapman did not do any damage to the nose of the victim. Does this mean that his intention was to not damage the nose and that he had a motive for not doing so ?
The killer of Catherine Eddows did not do any damage to the legs of the victim. Does this mean that his intention was to not damage the legs and that he had a motive for not doing so?
The principle is simple. For every undamaged part of the body of each victim, you can postulate an hypothesis that the killer intentionally abstained from damaging that specific body part. But you can not do it on NO SOURCE(S). Absence of x does not imply intent and intent from a motive.
Do you understand? You must go from absence of x to a source giving indication of intent and if you shall explain the intent you must use a source giving the motive for the intent.
Do you understand how difficult that is?
Do you understand that you need data from the life of the person on a micro level to do it?
And you have no such source, because if you did, you would very quickly have discussed it here in support for your hypothesis. You have already presented Lechmere as your suspect. There are no ethical aspects standing in the way for you. But still you can not produce one single scrap of data for the hypothesis that the eyeballs were intentionally undamaged because Lechmere had a motive to actively do so.
And another thing. If the killer cut away the eyelids, that may very well have been a result of making cuts in other parts of the face. What do you say about that?
Regards, Pierre
Originally posted by Pierre
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Absence of X (in this case damage) is not historical evidence of presence of intent.
Let me give you some examples from the cases:
The killer of Polly Nichols did not do any damage to the eyelids of the victim. Does this mean that his intention was to not damage the eyelids and that he had a motive for not doing so?
The killer of Annie Chapman did not do any damage to the nose of the victim. Does this mean that his intention was to not damage the nose and that he had a motive for not doing so ?
The killer of Catherine Eddows did not do any damage to the legs of the victim. Does this mean that his intention was to not damage the legs and that he had a motive for not doing so?
The principle is simple. For every undamaged part of the body of each victim, you can postulate an hypothesis that the killer intentionally abstained from damaging that specific body part. But you can not do it on NO SOURCE(S). Absence of x does not imply intent and intent from a motive.
Do you understand? You must go from absence of x to a source giving indication of intent and if you shall explain the intent you must use a source giving the motive for the intent.
Do you understand how difficult that is?
Do you understand that you need data from the life of the person on a micro level to do it?
And you have no such source, because if you did, you would very quickly have discussed it here in support for your hypothesis. You have already presented Lechmere as your suspect. There are no ethical aspects standing in the way for you. But still you can not produce one single scrap of data for the hypothesis that the eyeballs were intentionally undamaged because Lechmere had a motive to actively do so.
And another thing. If the killer cut away the eyelids, that may very well have been a result of making cuts in other parts of the face. What do you say about that?
Regards, Pierre
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