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The Police Code & The Goulston Street Graffito

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  • #31
    Originally posted by Michael W Richards View Post
    Perhaps I shouldnt have included that single word in bold, when the majority of which I did highlight "In no definition of the English language can this sentence be described as obscene or threatening. There are no obscenities and no individual, or group of people, is being threatened in that sentence" was what I was intending to address."

    If the message was written to incite anger towards Jews, which I believe it was simply by reading it with some emotional context, then it is threatening.

    Semantics, is all.
    Michael, I understood which part of my post you were referring to. The word "inflammatory"- which I assume you are referring to - was originally highlighted in bold by me.

    You still haven't addressed the issue of how the sentence could be described as obscene.

    There has to be some kind of objective standard by which a sentence can be reasonably described as "threatening". By the same standards you are adopting, if the author had written "A Jew committed the murders" you would presumably describe it as threatening even though it would, in reality, have been an inflammatory accusation.

    As I said earlier, to describe the writing on the wall as "threatening", when there is no threat actually conveyed in or by that message (and you are reduced to speculating as to the intentions of the author) seems to me to be a clear attempt to unnaturally squeeze it into the terms of the Police Code which simply did not apply here.

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    • #32
      Originally posted by David Orsam View Post
      Michael, I understood which part of my post you were referring to. The word "inflammatory"- which I assume you are referring to - was originally highlighted in bold by me.

      You still haven't addressed the issue of how the sentence could be described as obscene.

      There has to be some kind of objective standard by which a sentence can be reasonably described as "threatening". By the same standards you are adopting, if the author had written "A Jew committed the murders" you would presumably describe it as threatening even though it would, in reality, have been an inflammatory accusation.

      As I said earlier, to describe the writing on the wall as "threatening", when there is no threat actually conveyed in or by that message (and you are reduced to speculating as to the intentions of the author) seems to me to be a clear attempt to unnaturally squeeze it into the terms of the Police Code which simply did not apply here.
      David I believe the sociopolitical climate in London at that time was dangerous to Jews at any time, but particularly at a time when at least one was being suggested as a maniacal killer by no less than Anderson himself. He stated offhandedly that the primary suspect would be a Polish Jew in that specific area.

      So any antisemitic rhetoric was dangerous to Jews. One that is found above a solid piece of murder evidence, that much more dangerous to the local Jews. Many of the basic truths about that area come to light when studying these murders, antisemitism, a prejudice similar to what has been seen lately towards all Muslims, was a very dangerous presence throughout these murders.

      Cheers Robert
      Michael Richards

      Comment


      • #33
        Originally posted by Michael W Richards View Post
        David I believe the sociopolitical climate in London at that time was dangerous to Jews at any time, but particularly at a time when at least one was being suggested as a maniacal killer by no less than Anderson himself.
        I'm not sure what it is about what I have said in this thread that makes you think I don't understand this. It is why I have said that the police considered the writing on the wall to be inflammatory. I have already said that Sir Charles Warren believed that leaving the writing on the wall would lead to an onslaught upon the Jews, destruction of property and loss of life. But there is no threat as such contained in the writing on the wall. It was regarded as inflammatory by the police and inflammatory statements were not covered by the Police Code.

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        • #34
          The police may or may not have considered the writing to be inflammatory. That is not really the point. The point is that they had no way of knowing whether someone in the crowd reading it might consider it inflammatory and definitely antisemitic. That person shouts out "I knew the Jews were behind all this" and the crowd is off and running. I don't know why the Police Code has to enter into it when it seems the police were simply acting out of an abundance of caution.

          c.d.

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          • #35
            Originally posted by David Orsam View Post
            I'm not sure what it is about what I have said in this thread that makes you think I don't understand this. It is why I have said that the police considered the writing on the wall to be inflammatory. I have already said that Sir Charles Warren believed that leaving the writing on the wall would lead to an onslaught upon the Jews, destruction of property and loss of life. But there is no threat as such contained in the writing on the wall. It was regarded as inflammatory by the police and inflammatory statements were not covered by the Police Code.
            I didn't think we'd have to beat this to death Robert, but the line in bold keeps getting injected. If the message was considered derogatory towards Jews and intended to incite gentiles, its a threat to public peace, and safety. So yes, they obviously thought it represented a threat, despite what you perceive as benign.
            Michael Richards

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            • #36
              Originally posted by c.d. View Post
              The police may or may not have considered the writing to be inflammatory. That is not really the point. The point is that they had no way of knowing whether someone in the crowd reading it might consider it inflammatory and definitely antisemitic. That person shouts out "I knew the Jews were behind all this" and the crowd is off and running. I don't know why the Police Code has to enter into it when it seems the police were simply acting out of an abundance of caution.

              c.d.
              As I said to Robert, they obviously believed it presented a threat to public safety, and that it might incite violence. That superceded any value it may or may not have had based on the proximity of the cloth.
              Michael Richards

              Comment


              • #37
                Originally posted by Michael W Richards View Post
                I didn't think we'd have to beat this to death Robert, but the line in bold keeps getting injected. If the message was considered derogatory towards Jews and intended to incite gentiles, its a threat to public peace, and safety. So yes, they obviously thought it represented a threat, despite what you perceive as benign.
                Are you calling me "Robert"?

                If you are now describing the writing as "a threat to public peace, and safety" this is totally different to a threatening message so that, as I have consistently stated, the Police Code did not apply to it.

                I assume you have given up your earlier claim that the message was also obscene.

                Comment


                • #38
                  Originally posted by David Orsam View Post
                  I assume you have given up your earlier claim that the message was also obscene.
                  If you were, in fact, claiming this by highlighting my sentence in which I denied it was obscene. Perhaps you didn't mean to?

                  Comment


                  • #39
                    Originally posted by Monty View Post
                    An entry in Howard Vincent's Police Code, a guide book by which all constables should abide by, under Obscene Publications (Page 122), on the erasing of such chalk writing as seen in Goulston Street.

                    So it would seem the Met were guided to erase the graffito after all.



                    Monty
                    Hi Monty,

                    it is a known problem within the social sciences and history that there are norms and practice and that they are different things. Practice doesn´t always correspond to norms.

                    So if you want to use a motive explanation for why they erased the graffito, you will not know if the motive was the norm or if it might have been something else.

                    But if you chose to think functionally, which many historians do, you can use this book and think that you know why they did it.

                    I merely want to point out some critical aspects of analyzing data sources from the past. We all have problems with these aspects, all the time.

                    Perhaps you are already aware of this, since you just write that "they were guided". With that you have not given any explicit explanation as to why they did it.

                    Regards Pierre
                    Last edited by Pierre; 12-14-2015, 05:53 AM.

                    Comment


                    • #40
                      Originally posted by David Orsam View Post
                      Are you calling me "Robert"?

                      If you are now describing the writing as "a threat to public peace, and safety" this is totally different to a threatening message so that, as I have consistently stated, the Police Code did not apply to it.

                      I assume you have given up your earlier claim that the message was also obscene.
                      never said it was obscene....you may check that...and a threat to public peace is threatening.
                      Michael Richards

                      Comment


                      • #41
                        Originally posted by Michael W Richards View Post
                        never said it was obscene....you may check that..
                        I gathered that Michael hence my #38 but I remind you that in #20 you highlighted my entire sentence which said:

                        "In no definition of the English language can this sentence be described as obscene or threatening. There are no obscenities and no individual, or group of people, is being threatened in that sentence."

                        And of that sentence you said "David the part I captured in bold was what I wanted to address". That's why I thought you were challenging my claim that the writing cannot be described as obscene. But fine, I can see you weren't doing that now.

                        However, it is amusing that Monty bases his argument that the writing on the wall fell under the Police Code by arguing that it was obscene whereas you say it was because it was threatening. Neither is correct and it makes me wonder why people are so keen to try and squeeze the writing unnaturally to make in fall under the jurisdiction of the Police Code.

                        Comment


                        • #42
                          Originally posted by Michael W Richards View Post
                          and a threat to public peace is threatening.
                          That is not the case. I shouldn't have to explain basic principles of the English language but doing it as simply as possible by way of example:

                          A man can walk into a room with a threatening manner, using threatening language, but in fact pose no threat to anyone at all.

                          Equally, a man can walk into a room with a non-threatening manner, using no threatening language, but can pose a serious threat to everyone in the room.

                          Or a man can walk into a room with a threatening manner, using threatening language, AND pose a threat.

                          I'm sure you can see the difference. The fact that the message might have posed a threat to the public peace does not mean that it was inherently threatening. It is something different. The words "The Jews are the men who will not be blamed for nothing" are not inherently threatening. If there was a law against writing threatening messages you would never be able to convict the author for that rather neutral sentence. The message might have been a threat to the peace but it was most certainly not threatening.

                          Comment


                          • #43
                            Originally posted by David Orsam View Post
                            That is not the case. I shouldn't have to explain basic principles of the English language but doing it as simply as possible by way of example:

                            A man can walk into a room with a threatening manner, using threatening language, but in fact pose no threat to anyone at all.

                            Equally, a man can walk into a room with a non-threatening manner, using no threatening language, but can pose a serious threat to everyone in the room.

                            Or a man can walk into a room with a threatening manner, using threatening language, AND pose a threat.

                            I'm sure you can see the difference. The fact that the message might have posed a threat to the public peace does not mean that it was inherently threatening. It is something different. The words "The Jews are the men who will not be blamed for nothing" are not inherently threatening. If there was a law against writing threatening messages you would never be able to convict the author for that rather neutral sentence. The message might have been a threat to the peace but it was most certainly not threatening.
                            How much time and energy needs to be spent on semantics here David? IF the author intended to cast aspersions upon the Jews, or to suggest that they have mistakenly avoided blame for something, he might have written that exact phrase.

                            So, once again, and the last time Im going over this with you or anyone, a written suggestion of guilt by the Jews for anything they may have done...in the opinion of the author...as the message can be interpreted without any twisting or reading between the lines...in an area that was at that time experiencing real hostility and animosity to the large Jewish immigrant population in the area is in and of itself a threat to local Jews, if only on the basis of inciting an antisemetic reaction.

                            We are arguing about something that is answered satisfactorily by the contemporary investigators, it was perceived as a threat to Jews and their safety.

                            Since it appears on a wall that leads to dwellings that were almost 100%populated by Immigrant Jews, I can see why they felt the need to have it erased. Why they couldn't take down 1 official version of it before doing so is beyond me, but that's the crux.
                            Michael Richards

                            Comment


                            • #44
                              Originally posted by David Orsam View Post
                              That is not the case. I shouldn't have to explain basic principles of the English language but doing it as simply as possible by way of example:

                              A man can walk into a room with a threatening manner, using threatening language, but in fact pose no threat to anyone at all.

                              Equally, a man can walk into a room with a non-threatening manner, using no threatening language, but can pose a serious threat to everyone in the room.

                              Or a man can walk into a room with a threatening manner, using threatening language, AND pose a threat.

                              I'm sure you can see the difference. The fact that the message might have posed a threat to the public peace does not mean that it was inherently threatening. It is something different. The words "The Jews are the men who will not be blamed for nothing" are not inherently threatening. If there was a law against writing threatening messages you would never be able to convict the author for that rather neutral sentence. The message might have been a threat to the peace but it was most certainly not threatening.
                              Perceptions very often rule over realities. Your threatening man, by virtue of that very adjective, is a threat. A perceived one, in your example.
                              Michael Richards

                              Comment


                              • #45
                                Originally posted by Michael W Richards View Post
                                How much time and energy needs to be spent on semantics here David?
                                The issue is ALL about semantics Michael considering that we are attempting to work out if the writing was "threatening" as per the Police Code.

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