Originally posted by SirJohnFalstaff
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Lets say he strangled Chapman in the passage of No. 29, then moved her outside to mutilate her, ....why?
Or Eddowes, strangled in a house, then carried outside to mutilate her.....why?
What is the benefit of doing this?
Perhaps I should be more precise.....what is the benefit of separating the two actions, as opposed to strangling & mutilating at the same location?
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