Since this seems to be touched on in quite a few threads, I thought it might be worth starting one of its own (I can't find a dedicated one). Basically, I would be interested in hearing everyone's opinions on why the murders stopped (if, indeed, you believe that they did). I'll outline the major reasons that are usually posited, along with my own thoughts on their pros and cons, and would welcome all or any discussion on alternatives and opinions.
1. Suicide. I often see this suggested (primarily with regard to police suspect Montague Druitt killing himself shortly after the crimes). Personally, I find it most unlikely: the killer seemed happy enough to let his crimes escalate, which would suggest a lack of remorse. I'm also unfamiliar with any known cases of serial killers who have committed suicide BEFORE getting caught or suspected, but I'm happy to be corrected on this point. To play Devil's advocate, however, it is possible that a killer in 1888 might have been more likely to have been conflicted over his actions than one operating today; religion and church played, I would imagine, a more significant role in people's lives then, and the general lack of knowledge about psycopathy may well have led to the Ripper loathing himself because he didn't understand himself.
2. Death by some other means. Mortality was, of course, much higher in 1888 than today, and it is possible that the Ripper simply died of one of the many illnesses which would have been endemic in lower class Whitechapel. However, I do find it somewhat stretches credulity to believe that Jack conveniently dropped dead soon after committing his 'climactic' crime.
3. Conviction for some other crime. Possible, of course, but I tend to think that a canny operator like Jack would have been unlikely to have been caught for something else. Further, it would presumably have to have been something serious, as a minor offence would only have incapacitated him for a short time (after which we might reasonably expect him to have resumed ripping), whilst only a serious crime (another murder) would have sent him to the gallows. The problem there is that a controlled killer like the Ripper would, in my opinion, have been unlikely to have committed a murder in a slapdash and 'unfamiliar' manner which might have led to his arrest.
4. Moving away from the area. This seems fairly popular and plausible a theory. People, for example, suggest a trip to America might have been possible, with the Carrie Brown murder cited as evidence that the Ripper continued his work on the other side of the Atlantic. However, I think that we can also question why there was never another 'series' of murders matching the Ripper killings in another fixed location. Was he perhaps simply afraid to start up again in an unfamiliar setting?
5. He simply stopped. It is not unknown for serial killers to stop either for good or for varying lengths of time. As Mary Kelly was such an 'extreme' kill, it might be argued that the Ripper felt gratified enough to stop killing, having achieved his ultimate thrill. My problem with the notion of a break or a full stop, however, is the fact that the canonical victims were all killed within such a short time frame. I just find it hard to accept that the Ripper murders sprung up in August 1888 (and with such a level of savagery) only for the killer to have tired and/or achieved his ultimate goal within a few short months. Were they more spread out (over years rather than months) I could understand their 'drying up', but Jack seemed to take to his task with alacrity, and it's therefore hard to envision him considering his work 'complete' only months after beginning.
6. He didn't stop, but changed MO. This, I think, is quite possible (within reason). If one accepts that Jack MIGHT have exhausted the 'ripping' method during the Kelly murder, I find it entirely possible that he sought some other means of satisfaction. If he didn't stop altogether in 1888 (for whatever reason) then I believe he could well have changed his method, and moved onto something akin to the Elizabeth Jackson murder. However, I'm afraid that I can't quite see him moving on to poison or another such variant method - his pleasure seems to derive from mutilation, and I would tentatively suggest that any future crimes with Jackson-type mutilations should be examined if one believes that he didn't actually stop killing in 1888.
Anyway, I look forward to all and every personal opinion or theory about when/why/how/if Jack stopped killing after Mary Kelly!
1. Suicide. I often see this suggested (primarily with regard to police suspect Montague Druitt killing himself shortly after the crimes). Personally, I find it most unlikely: the killer seemed happy enough to let his crimes escalate, which would suggest a lack of remorse. I'm also unfamiliar with any known cases of serial killers who have committed suicide BEFORE getting caught or suspected, but I'm happy to be corrected on this point. To play Devil's advocate, however, it is possible that a killer in 1888 might have been more likely to have been conflicted over his actions than one operating today; religion and church played, I would imagine, a more significant role in people's lives then, and the general lack of knowledge about psycopathy may well have led to the Ripper loathing himself because he didn't understand himself.
2. Death by some other means. Mortality was, of course, much higher in 1888 than today, and it is possible that the Ripper simply died of one of the many illnesses which would have been endemic in lower class Whitechapel. However, I do find it somewhat stretches credulity to believe that Jack conveniently dropped dead soon after committing his 'climactic' crime.
3. Conviction for some other crime. Possible, of course, but I tend to think that a canny operator like Jack would have been unlikely to have been caught for something else. Further, it would presumably have to have been something serious, as a minor offence would only have incapacitated him for a short time (after which we might reasonably expect him to have resumed ripping), whilst only a serious crime (another murder) would have sent him to the gallows. The problem there is that a controlled killer like the Ripper would, in my opinion, have been unlikely to have committed a murder in a slapdash and 'unfamiliar' manner which might have led to his arrest.
4. Moving away from the area. This seems fairly popular and plausible a theory. People, for example, suggest a trip to America might have been possible, with the Carrie Brown murder cited as evidence that the Ripper continued his work on the other side of the Atlantic. However, I think that we can also question why there was never another 'series' of murders matching the Ripper killings in another fixed location. Was he perhaps simply afraid to start up again in an unfamiliar setting?
5. He simply stopped. It is not unknown for serial killers to stop either for good or for varying lengths of time. As Mary Kelly was such an 'extreme' kill, it might be argued that the Ripper felt gratified enough to stop killing, having achieved his ultimate thrill. My problem with the notion of a break or a full stop, however, is the fact that the canonical victims were all killed within such a short time frame. I just find it hard to accept that the Ripper murders sprung up in August 1888 (and with such a level of savagery) only for the killer to have tired and/or achieved his ultimate goal within a few short months. Were they more spread out (over years rather than months) I could understand their 'drying up', but Jack seemed to take to his task with alacrity, and it's therefore hard to envision him considering his work 'complete' only months after beginning.
6. He didn't stop, but changed MO. This, I think, is quite possible (within reason). If one accepts that Jack MIGHT have exhausted the 'ripping' method during the Kelly murder, I find it entirely possible that he sought some other means of satisfaction. If he didn't stop altogether in 1888 (for whatever reason) then I believe he could well have changed his method, and moved onto something akin to the Elizabeth Jackson murder. However, I'm afraid that I can't quite see him moving on to poison or another such variant method - his pleasure seems to derive from mutilation, and I would tentatively suggest that any future crimes with Jackson-type mutilations should be examined if one believes that he didn't actually stop killing in 1888.
Anyway, I look forward to all and every personal opinion or theory about when/why/how/if Jack stopped killing after Mary Kelly!
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