I have seen it, read it, heard it repeatedly that Jack the Ripper was a sexual sadist. It's not a theory I subscribe to, but I'm willing to be wrong. I just can't see it somehow. So if anyone could explain to me why they believe that, using the c5, I would appreciate it.
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Hello Errata,
He was not a sexual sadist. The victims were neither alive nor suffereing. He was a necro-sadist.
It is very hard to explain motivation in a serial offender when a subject to study from(a concreat suspect) is not present. However it is possible.
This is what my essay will be breaching about. Well part of it anyways.Washington Irving:
"To a homeless man, who has no spot on this wide world which he can truly call his own, there is a momentary feeling of something like independence and territorial consequence, when, after a weary day's travel, he kicks off his boots, thrusts his feet into slippers, and stretches himself before an inn fire. Let the world without go as it may; let kingdoms rise and fall, so long as he has the wherewithal to pay his bills, he is, for the time being, the very monarch of all he surveys. The arm chair in his throne; the poker his sceptre, and the little parlour of some twelve feet square, his undisputed empire. "
Stratford-on-Avon
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Originally posted by corey123 View PostHello Errata,
He was not a sexual sadist. The victims were neither alive nor suffereing. He was a necro-sadist.The early bird might get the worm, but the second mouse gets the cheese.
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Indeed, Lust murder has nothing to do with sexual gratification, but rather attacking areas of the killers attraction.
Errata,
What do you mean you don't see any evidence of these murders being sexual in nature?Washington Irving:
"To a homeless man, who has no spot on this wide world which he can truly call his own, there is a momentary feeling of something like independence and territorial consequence, when, after a weary day's travel, he kicks off his boots, thrusts his feet into slippers, and stretches himself before an inn fire. Let the world without go as it may; let kingdoms rise and fall, so long as he has the wherewithal to pay his bills, he is, for the time being, the very monarch of all he surveys. The arm chair in his throne; the poker his sceptre, and the little parlour of some twelve feet square, his undisputed empire. "
Stratford-on-Avon
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Originally posted by corey123 View PostWhat do you mean you don't see any evidence of these murders being sexual in nature?
These women weren't stripped, nor were breasts exposed. My impression is that the killer did not leave the skirts up to expose the pubic area, but did not pull them down to the degree Victorian decency required. And here's kind of the major one. Their sex organs (barring Kelly) were intact. There was no genital mutilation, no breast mutilation. Eddowes had a cut that may have separated the labia from the thigh, but given everything else, it doesn't seem as though that was the intention. Their inner thighs are not mutilated, their mouths are intact. There is no evidence of sexual contact, either before or after the killing.
Their organs of generation were taken. The uterus, and I'm assuming fallopian tubes and ovaries. The killer seems to have no interest in the vagina, other than to possibly find the uterus. He removes only so much of it to be sure he gets the womb intact. He doesn't take the vagina, he doesn't take the external sex organs, the breasts or even the tongue. Nothing associated with the act of sex is targeted. It seems the target is child-bearing. Or femininity, depending on how much of a symbolic bent he has. He is neutering these women. I would think if it was because of raging misogyny, he would eliminate all characteristics of womanhood. The uterus, the external genitalia, the breasts. Maybe even cut off their hair. But he just takes the womb. And an odd kidney. Everything else is just shunted out of the way. The whole point of the exercise seems to be the uterus. Eddowes is a little different. Her face is mutilated. To me that makes her case the most significant.
To me, none of this is sexual. It's certainly personal, it's misogynistic, and guided by a deep anger. But he didn't.. play with them, Alive or dead. So I have theories, more notions really, but I don't see what I would recognize as a sexual element. Just that his victims were female, and he was most likely male. It's like the murder equivalent of knocking over a liquor store.Last edited by Errata; 09-28-2010, 01:45 AM.The early bird might get the worm, but the second mouse gets the cheese.
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Originally posted by Errata View PostI'm sort of feeling my way through this one, so bear with me. My impression is that the murderer is neither rushed nor frenzied. I think I would expect more stabbing in a sexual murder, but I'm a little Freudian. It's almost like dissecting a fetal pig in biology, but you have to do it in five minutes and you are not skilled with a blade. There are some kind of random cuts on the abdomens and pelvises of these women, but even this strikes me as sloppy knife work. He kills methodically and quickly. Evidently he chokes them before cutting their throats. He doesn't seem interested in struggle, or blood, or even strangulation. He does nothing to prolong any of these things.
These women weren't stripped, nor were breasts exposed. My impression is that the killer did not leave the skirts up to expose the pubic area, but did not pull them down to the degree Victorian decency required. And here's kind of the major one. Their sex organs (barring Kelly) were intact. There was no genital mutilation, no breast mutilation. Eddowes had a cut that may have separated the labia from the thigh, but given everything else, it doesn't seem as though that was the intention. Their inner thighs are not mutilated, their mouths are intact. There is no evidence of sexual contact, either before or after the killing.
Their organs of generation were taken. The uterus, and I'm assuming fallopian tubes and ovaries. The killer seems to have no interest in the vagina, other than to possibly find the uterus. He removes only so much of it to be sure he gets the womb intact. He doesn't take the vagina, he doesn't take the external sex organs, the breasts or even the tongue. Nothing associated with the act of sex is targeted. It seems the target is child-bearing. Or femininity, depending on how much of a symbolic bent he has. He is neutering these women. I would think if it was because of raging misogyny, he would eliminate all characteristics of womanhood. The uterus, the external genitalia, the breasts. Maybe even cut off their hair. But he just takes the womb. And an odd kidney. Everything else is just shunted out of the way. The whole point of the exercise seems to be the uterus. Eddowes is a little different. Her face is mutilated. To me that makes her case the most significant.
To me, none of this is sexual. It's certainly personal, it's misogynistic, and guided by a deep anger. But he didn't.. play with them, Alive or dead. So I have theories, more notions really, but I don't see what I would recognize as a sexual element. Just that his victims were female, and he was most likely male. It's like the murder equivalent of knocking over a liquor store.
I think there is clearly a sexual element to his MO and psych. First its with prostitutes who are about engage in a sex act. He targets the sexual organs, then later the face and breasts. And god knows what he does later with the organs he removes. Plus all that we know about serial killers now is that somehow sex/death/violence get rather twisted and equated in their brains."Is all that we see or seem
but a dream within a dream?"
-Edgar Allan Poe
"...the man and the peaked cap he is said to have worn
quite tallies with the descriptions I got of him."
-Frederick G. Abberline
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Originally posted by Abby Normal View PostHi Errata
I think there is clearly a sexual element to his MO and psych. First its with prostitutes who are about engage in a sex act. He targets the sexual organs, then later the face and breasts. And god knows what he does later with the organs he removes. Plus all that we know about serial killers now is that somehow sex/death/violence get rather twisted and equated in their brains.
Not all serial killers have psycho-sexual issues. Certainly many do. But I can also think of maybe ten fairly well known serial killers who killed for other reasons. In fact looking through it, the majority of killers of prostitutes are more sort of revenge motivated. More concerned with extermination of a societal blight that with sex. So I thinks it's possible there is another driving force.The early bird might get the worm, but the second mouse gets the cheese.
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Originally posted by Errata View PostThe problem with finding clues to motive is that just about anything points in several directions. Prostitute victims can point to a sexual element. Or he could hate prostitutes for a non-sexual reason. Or it is simply that prostitutes are the only women in Victorian times who will go off with a strange man, and breaking and entering is not his strong suit.
Not all serial killers have psycho-sexual issues. Certainly many do. But I can also think of maybe ten fairly well known serial killers who killed for other reasons. In fact looking through it, the majority of killers of prostitutes are more sort of revenge motivated. More concerned with extermination of a societal blight that with sex. So I thinks it's possible there is another driving force.
I agree-there probably are other driving forces-such as revenge as you say. i was merely giving my opinion and reasons that it looks like there is also sexual element involved. It has definitely struck me that there was never any signs of sexual intercourse/assault of any kind with the JtR victims. My thought was that perhaps its the mutilations and then the organs themselves that provided the sexual attraction for JtR.
In fact looking through it, the majority of killers of prostitutes are more sort of revenge motivated. More concerned with extermination of a societal blight that with sex
Which ones? This definitely of interest for me and i am not asking this as a kind of "prove it" argument.
BTW-I am not adverse to being convinced that there is no sexual element in the MO of JtR. frankly, Its now kind of got me thinking along the lines that maybe he was impotant and or had gotten a disease and it was for revenge and/or he blamed them for something. Good thread."Is all that we see or seem
but a dream within a dream?"
-Edgar Allan Poe
"...the man and the peaked cap he is said to have worn
quite tallies with the descriptions I got of him."
-Frederick G. Abberline
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So here is my take. The investigators at the time were using the opinions of men like Krafft-Ebing as interpretive filters. The focus of Krafft-Ebing on sexuality heightened the investigators perception of sexuality in the crimes. At some point witnesses who knew the victims described enough of them as "unfortunates", that a conflation between social status and sexuality occurred. This has been the dominant paradigm for viewing these crimes over the subsequent years because no one wanted to say the interpretive filter of the investigators was skewed.
Errata has correctly observed that there is no discernible sustained focus on the genitals in either attack or mutilations. I hope I am not running a spoiler here by saying a sexually motivated offenders first interest is by definition the genitals, the regions used in the sexual act. It seems to me a more accurate conception might be that the killer had a womb fixation. This is more likely to be the case as Victorian sexual identities for women were fixated on this very thing. Couple this with a piss poor understanding of female biology, and the offender is not targeting a "womb" as a modern understands the term, but some mythical, magical organ women have that men do not. He is targeting a culturally dominant myth regarding aspects of female biology, and not the actual biology. Wound descriptions bear this out. DaveWe are all born cute as a button and dumb as rocks. We grow out of cute fast!
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Originally posted by Abby Normal View Post
Which ones? This definitely of interest for me and i am not asking this as a kind of "prove it" argument.
BTW-I am not adverse to being convinced that there is no sexual element in the MO of JtR. frankly, Its now kind of got me thinking along the lines that maybe he was impotant and or had gotten a disease and it was for revenge and/or he blamed them for something. Good thread.
My pet theory (which has little evidence and no proof) is that the murders were committed by someone who's life had been ruined by prostitutes. From day one. I think someone was going around neutering these women, taking out the organ that had caused the offense. Someone who's beef with prostitutes is not remotely sexual. I think Jack the Ripper is the child of a prostitute.The early bird might get the worm, but the second mouse gets the cheese.
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Hello,
I would imagine that he selected prostitutes partly because he could get them somewhere secluded to kill them.
I wouldn't think revenge was a motive - if he wanted revenge then he could just stab them, there would be no need to remove organs.
The fact that he cuts them open and removes organs means that theres something much deeper at work.
The way that he obliterated Kelly - removing her face and destroying the thing that made her recognisable as a Human or a person (or woman perhaps) - and that he had apparently disfigured the face previously on at least one other victim, suggests hatred.
You could perhaps think that removing the womb humiliates them, the loss of all dignity by defeminising them, in the same way that emasculating a man destroys his own self worth and humiliates him.
You couls also understand taking the heart to "possess" the soul if you like, but why take the kidney?
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Originally posted by protohistorian View PostSo here is my take. The investigators at the time were using the opinions of men like Krafft-Ebing as interpretive filters. The focus of Krafft-Ebing on sexuality heightened the investigators perception of sexuality in the crimes. At some point witnesses who knew the victims described enough of them as "unfortunates", that a conflation between social status and sexuality occurred. This has been the dominant paradigm for viewing these crimes over the subsequent years because no one wanted to say the interpretive filter of the investigators was skewed.
Errata has correctly observed that there is no discernible sustained focus on the genitals in either attack or mutilations. I hope I am not running a spoiler here by saying a sexually motivated offenders first interest is by definition the genitals, the regions used in the sexual act. It seems to me a more accurate conception might be that the killer had a womb fixation. This is more likely to be the case as Victorian sexual identities for women were fixated on this very thing. Couple this with a piss poor understanding of female biology, and the offender is not targeting a "womb" as a modern understands the term, but some mythical, magical organ women have that men do not. He is targeting a culturally dominant myth regarding aspects of female biology, and not the actual biology. Wound descriptions bear this out. Dave
Wow! Very interesting and creative!
It seems to me a more accurate conception might be that the killer had a womb fixation.
Would you care do elaborate on this-Why do you think he did have a womb fixation?
Couple this with a piss poor understanding of female biology, and the offender is not targeting a "womb" as a modern understands the term, but some mythical, magical organ women have that men do not. He is targeting a culturally dominant myth regarding aspects of female biology, and not the actual biology.
But then why the other stuff? (The face mutilations, breast removal, kidney, etc.)
BTW-nice username HAHA-very witty. next time someone asks me what I do for a living- i am going to tell them I am a Proto Historian or maybe a Pre-Historian."Is all that we see or seem
but a dream within a dream?"
-Edgar Allan Poe
"...the man and the peaked cap he is said to have worn
quite tallies with the descriptions I got of him."
-Frederick G. Abberline
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