Did the Ripper actually use strangulation on all his canonical victims? Or is that just an assumption?
We know for a (dare I say it) fact that he strangled Annie Chapman. But hers is the only murder with signs of anything of the sort having taken place. Polly had bruising on her jaw but that seems more like the product of having her lower face held during a struggle, perhaps to steady her with a hand over her mouth as he cut her throat. Leaving my personal feelings about her candidacy as a Ripper victim aside, Stride seems to have been choked or had her scarf twisted around her neck; but again, that could've just been her killer's way of lifting her chin up to get at her throat with his blade more so than for a need to strangle her. Eddowes seems to have been caught offguard, the same with Mary Kelly, as there were no (as far as I can remember) signs of them having been strangled appeared on their bodies either.
So, I'm just wondering, did the Ripper only strangle Chapman? And if so, why? My guess is that it was because of the location and apparent time of that particular murder; it was allegedly verging on daybreak and was overlooked by open windows with tennants (some of them anyway) up and awake.
What do you reckon? Was strangulation an occurring part of his M.O./signature, or was it a one-off occurence to keep one of his most riskiest kills quiet?
We know for a (dare I say it) fact that he strangled Annie Chapman. But hers is the only murder with signs of anything of the sort having taken place. Polly had bruising on her jaw but that seems more like the product of having her lower face held during a struggle, perhaps to steady her with a hand over her mouth as he cut her throat. Leaving my personal feelings about her candidacy as a Ripper victim aside, Stride seems to have been choked or had her scarf twisted around her neck; but again, that could've just been her killer's way of lifting her chin up to get at her throat with his blade more so than for a need to strangle her. Eddowes seems to have been caught offguard, the same with Mary Kelly, as there were no (as far as I can remember) signs of them having been strangled appeared on their bodies either.
So, I'm just wondering, did the Ripper only strangle Chapman? And if so, why? My guess is that it was because of the location and apparent time of that particular murder; it was allegedly verging on daybreak and was overlooked by open windows with tennants (some of them anyway) up and awake.
What do you reckon? Was strangulation an occurring part of his M.O./signature, or was it a one-off occurence to keep one of his most riskiest kills quiet?
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