Hi all, I just wonder what other folk think here. I've always struggled with the idea of Jack being covered in blood from head to toe so to speak, after he'd done the deed.
It seems likely that he used strangulation to murder the women and then did the mutilations, if I've understood correctly. This being the case, the heart would no longer be beating, so there would be no arterial spray (although Mary Kelly, assuming she was a ripper victim seems to be the exception to that rule). I assume desanguination would have been an oozing process rather than an active bleeding. If this is correct, it seems to me Jack could mutilate to his hearts content (for want of a better expression!!) and remain relatively blood free.
Over to you peops....
It seems likely that he used strangulation to murder the women and then did the mutilations, if I've understood correctly. This being the case, the heart would no longer be beating, so there would be no arterial spray (although Mary Kelly, assuming she was a ripper victim seems to be the exception to that rule). I assume desanguination would have been an oozing process rather than an active bleeding. If this is correct, it seems to me Jack could mutilate to his hearts content (for want of a better expression!!) and remain relatively blood free.
Over to you peops....
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