Originally posted by etenguy
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Hi Fisherman - I read some statistics about serial murderers who eviscerate (Based on American data but I can't remember which area - I think California) which identified that they are rare but appeared about every 20 years. I think it was on murderpaedia or a link from there. I would need to find the reference again, I didn't think to take a note at the time.
Is that one evert 20 years in California? Or in every major city? Or in the US? It would be valuable to know. There are 40 million people in California, so if we "translate" it to London we may be looking at one every 80 years.
That the torso murderer became active again around the time of the ripper murders may mean:
a) it was the same person - I don't discount that
b) the ripper murders excited the torso murderer to continue his spree (the torso murder before that was May 1887). So the overlap may not be coincidence but as a result of a causal relationship.
But the four torso murders that overlap the Ripper murders started in May of 1887, etenguy. So the Ripper murders cannot have led on the torso ditto. It took fifteen months after the Rainham murder before the Ripper murders started.
I do take your point - if my speculation is right (two murderers, same job) we would have two slaughtermen murdering women in London and there would be an overlap in time during which they are both cutting and eviscerating women with some striking similarities between some victims in each series - but also other victims in each series which are quite differently mutilated). It may be that the similarities (mid-line cut, flaps, removal of organs) arise from their job training with the torso murderer being more adept (older or just more experienced - see next paragraph). Then the coincidence becomes that the two men committing the murders (if there were two) had the same occupation. Of course it could be that men who have an obsession with cutting and evisceration were drawn to an occupation that allowed them full vent, at least on animals.
In 1990-91, three women were found in the Dallas area with their eyes gouged out. This will have meant either:
1. That we have a killer who is fixated on eyes, and who takes them out, or
2. That we have two or three killers, who all engage in eye removal in their occupations, like eye surgeons, and who have turned to murder in the same town or time
Both possibilities exist, but the message I am trying to hammer home is that option 1 is incredibly more likely than option 2!
If we have two murderous aninal slaughterers going on evisceration sprees in the same town and time in London, this too will be incredibly less likely than just the one killer being at work. It is simple logic. Of course, butchery has been found to desensitize those who engage in it, but eviscerating serial killers are neverthless rare in the extreme.
The one guy that immediately springs to mind on this score will be Fritz Haarmann. He certainly was a butcher, he certainly was a serial killer and he certainly eviscerated his victims - but he did not cut away the abdominal wall, because as an accomplished butcher he didnīt have to! He made two cuts to the abdomen and that was it.
Now, what are the odds of a butcher like Haarmann surfacing, killing and eviscerating? I know of no other eviscerating german serial killer. What, then, are the odds of TWO Haarmanns coming along at the same time and in Hannover? Truth be told, the mere fact that astronomical odds CAN be guessed tells us that it MAY happen. But the really crucial question is: Is it even remotely likely? Should we work from the assumption of one or two killers when we have serial murder involving eviscerations in the same time and town?
That questions answers itself, does it not?
I do not think we can automatically accept this is all the work of one man, but the possibility does exist and the idea should not dismissed out of hand. Other evidence should be examined (as you have been doing) to help us reach a conclusion about whether one killer or two is more likely.
You see, this is where you get it terribly wrong, in my mind. You speak of how it cannot be "dismissed out of hand" that there was only one killer, and you say that "the possibility exists". As if you were being generous!
But in reality, the possibility does not only exist, it is instead almost certainly the correct assumption. It is by far the best suggestion.
It is the two killer scenario that is - only just - possible, and that "cannot be dismissed out of hand". Itīs not the other way around.
Hang on to that feeble straw if you want to, but donīt try to turn it in to a tree trunk, etenguy!
You are right to caution against comparing dismemberment skills, since the ripper did not dismember (though he had an ideal opportunity with Kelly which he did not take). The torso murderer though, always dismembered his victims (this is a difference that needs explaining and I find the lack of availability of his 'chop shop' not compelling - we need a deeper explanation I think).
But what if it was that simple: that he had access to the chop shop only at times? Why would we need a "deeper explanation" if this was so? It is a very easy and straightforward explanation that covers the problem eminently.
There may of course be other explanations that you find more appealing, but that does not in any way detract from how the accessibility matter works quite well. Why would we deem the suggestion in any way not enough or unadmissible?
The difference in skills I was referring to is the organ removal - the ripper (from the doctors' description) was less adept, especially with Kelly, while the torso killer is more experienced - or at least appears to be.
So what organ removal in Kellys case is it you compare to the torso cases? Can you describe exactly how the two series were different in this respect? If it is about the heart, for example, how do the cases compare? In the Jackson case, for example, we know that the sternum was cut through, leaving the killer with a lot more wriggling room, so to speak. So what are you speaking of? I find that most people who mention cutting skill differences do so not on account of cold, hard facts but more on account of their own preconceptions. You are welcome to make a factually good case, based on the evidence. But can you?
An explanation may be the ripper necessarily worked fast in the dark and the torso murderer had more time and light. I could accept that explanation mostly, except for the Kelly murder. So does this point to different men or the same man working in different circumstances? I can't be sure but Kelly leads me to lean towards different men.
Annie Chapman was found lying on her back, with her abdomen opened up, the abdominal wall taken away and the uterus removed.
Mary Kelly was found on her back, her abdomen was opened up, the abdominal wall was taken away and the uterus removed.
To me, this leads me to lean against a common killer. Why we would even go near the idea of two (or three, as some will have it!) killers, is an enigma to me.
If these kinds of similarities, rare in the extreme, are not enough, then what is...?

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